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andrezito [222]
3 years ago
8

On july 9, mifflin company receives a $8,500, 90-day, 8% note from customer payton summers as payment on account. what entry sho

uld be made on july 9 to record receipt of the note?
Business
2 answers:
olga55 [171]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Dr Cash $8,670

Cr Interest Revenue $170

Cr Note Receivable $8,500        

Explanation:

As we know that the interest given is for a year, so we should calculate the interest rate for a unit month, which is calculated as under:

Interest per month = 0.08/12 = 0.0067

Interest revenue = Note Value * Interest rate per month * Number of months

Interest revenue = $8,500 * 0.0067 * 3

Interest revenue = $170

The double entry would be as under:

Dr Cash $8,670 .... ($8,500 Note Value + $170 Interest Revenue)

Cr Interest Revenue $170

Cr Note Receivable $8,500

brilliants [131]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

July 9, promissory note received from Payton Summers

Dr Notes receivable 8,500

    Cr Accounts receivable 8,500

Explanation:

Since the note is received as payment for an account receivable, you must increase notes payable (debit) and decrease accounts receivable (credit). This note is a current account that is due in 90 days, so it must be recorded at face value.

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The money multiplier equals:________.
Serjik [45]

Answer: B. 1/R, where R represents the reserve ratio for all banks in the economy.

Explanation:

The Money Multiplier is the money that Banks generate given a certain RESERVE REQUIREMENT/RATIO.

A Reserve Requirement is money that the Central Bank requires that Banks do not loan out and instead keep in reserve.

For example, if the reserve rate is 10% and a bank has $10 they can only loan out $9.

Assuming they loan out $9 then they created $19 in the economy because their customers still own the original $10 but now they have also given loans of $9. The people who take the loans then deposit it in another bank. That bank would keep $0.90 in reserve and loan out $8.10 meaning that $27.10 now exists in the economy.

The process goes on and on until it gets to $100.

A simpler way to get to the final figure is to divide 1 by the reserve requirement = 1/r which is the money multiplier.

Using the above example, that would be 1/0.1 which is 10.

Multiplying this 10 by the initial deposit of $10 will give you that same $100.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Where do banks get money to lend to borrowers?
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

They create the money they lend to borrowers.

Explanation:

:) Let me know if this helps!

(Are you talking about commercial banks?)

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following types of teams is the most autonomous?A. Self-managing teamsB. Quality circlesC. Semiautonomous work grou
coldgirl [10]

Explanation:

Autonomy -

It is refers to the degree to which the workers have the freedom , discretion , independence , so as to decide when and how to accomplish their jobs .

Hence , from the options given in the question ,

  • The most autonomous are the self designing teams and the  self - managing teams .
  • The least autonomous are the employee involvement groups and the  traditional work groups .
  • The moderate autonomous is the semi autonomous work groups .
7 0
3 years ago
The Besnier Company had $250 million of sales last year, and it had $75 million of fixed assets that were being operated at 80%
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

$312.5 million

Explanation:

Given that,

Besnier Company's sales last year = $250 million

Fixed assets last year = $75 million

Previous operating capacity of fixed assets = 80%

Sales at full capacity:

= Previous sales ÷ Previous Capacity

= $250 million ÷ 80%

= $312.5 million

Therefore, if the company had operated at full capacity then the sales could have been $312.5 million.

7 0
3 years ago
ExxonMobil has historically had a very low debt-to-equity ratio within the oil industry, but it recently issued $12 billion in n
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance , we would have to calculate first the cost of equity  using capital asset pricing model .

So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium

= 0.5% + 0.85 * 4%

= 3.9% . cost of equity

Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= 3.9% . WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.

In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance  we make the following calculation:

WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)

= 3.51% + 0.2%

= 3.71%

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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