Answer:
a. $965.74
b. $939.11
Explanation:
In this question we use the Present value formula i.e shown in the attachment below:
1. Given that,
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 6.5%
NPER = 4 years
PMT = $1,000 × 5.5% = $55
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after solving this, the price would be $965.74
2. Given that,
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 6.5%
NPER = 8 years
PMT = $1,000 × 5.5% = $55
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after solving this, the price would be $939.11
Answer:
$16,100 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the direct labor efficiency variance for June is shown below:
= Standard rate × (standard hours - actual hours)
= $23 × (1.3 × 35,000 - 44,800)
= $16,100 favorable
hence, the direct labor efficiency variance for June is $16,100 favorable
The same should be considered and relevant
Answer:
In a command economy, the goods and services that a country produces, the quantity in which they are produced, and the prices at which they are sold are planned by the government
The government plans the goods and services that a country produces, the quantity in which they are produced, and the price at which they are sold.
The answer is economic value added measure of divisional performance.
Performance appraisals tend to impact bonuses or pay raise that an individual will receive, and thus the best way to measure this would it on a division-level by evaluating the economic value that the division manages to give to the company. This would minimize short-term bias because it would look at the division’s performance for the whole year.
Answer:
B) plan 1 : worker earning y = x - 0.14 , unit labor = 
plan 2 : worker earning y = 0.5x + 0.5, unit labor = (0.5x + 0.5) / x
C) At 128%
D ) plan D IS PREFERABLE
Explanation:
In the first case Benefits are split : 30% to worker , 70% to company ( up to 120% ) performance
In the second case benefits 50% go to the worker and 50% go the company
B) The equations for worker earnings and normalized unit labor costs for each scheme
Plan 1 :
y ( percentage earning of worker ) = 1
unit labor cost = Y / 1
y = 0 - 30
unit labor = 0.3 / x
y = x - 0.14 therefore unit labor =
plan 2 :
y ( percentage earning of worker ) = 1, y = 0.5x + 0.5
unit labor cost : Y / 1 = (0.5x + 0.5) / x
C ) The point at which the two plans break even
0.5x + 0.5 = x - 0.14
0.5 + 0.14 = x - 0.5x
0.64 = x(1 - 0.5 )
x = 0.64 / 0.5 = 1.28 = 128%
D) The company would prefer plan 1
