Valuation of a swap during its life will least likely involve in the application of the principle of no arbitrage.
<h3>What is Swap?</h3>
Swap involves two individual that exchanging properties or money. This individual use different tools for the exchange as desired by them.
Arbitrage allows for sale of goods or property at the highest asking price and valuation will most like involve in it.
Therefore, valuation of a swap during its life will least likely involve in the application of the principle of no arbitrage
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Solution :
Assets = Liabilities + Paid in capital + retained earnings
1. $ 300,000 $ 300,000
2. $ 30,000 $ 30,000
3. $ 90,000 $ 90,000
4. $ 50,000 $ 50,000
5. $ 5,000 $ 5,000
6. $ 6,000 $ 6,000
7. $ 70,000 $ 70,000
8. --
9. $ 1,000 $ 1,000
Point 4 -- the accounts receivable will increase by $ 120,000 due to the credit sales and the cost of goods sold.
Point 6 -- Adjustments entry at the year end for 3 months from January to March 2022 should be reduced from both assets and retained earnings and the adjusted amount would be $ 4500.
Point 8 -- No impact as the cash is collected against the account receivable and both are assets.
30% off. 14,200 multiplied by 0.7 equals 9,940. 1.0 - 0.7 = 0.3
Answer:
a. The percentage increase per year in the winner’s check over this period was 7,73%
b. The winners prize at 2046 will be $12,975,215,98
Explanation:
a.
\sqrt[(2016-1895)]{(1390000/170)}
\sqrt[121]{8176,47}
0.0772965
b.
FC=IC*(1+0,0773)^{30}
FC=1,390,000*(1+0,0773)^{30}
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
Bonds payable Dr, $1,800,000
(1,800 × $1,000)
To Discount on bonds payable $30,000
To Common stock $720,000
(1,800 × 40 × $10)
To Paid-in-capital in excess of par $1,050,000
(Being conversion of bond into common stock is recorded)
Therefore for recording the conversion using the book value approach we simply debited the bonds payable and credited the discount on bonds payable, common stock and paid-in-capital in excess of par.
