Answer:
<u>∗ = 0.4x³</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
(15y + ∗)² = 225y²+12x³y+0.16x⁶
<u>Note:</u>
225y² = 15y * 15y = (15y)²
12x³y = 2 * 15y * 0.4x³
0.16x⁶ = 0.4x³ * 0.4x³ = (0.4x³)²
So, by factoring the right hand side:
225y²+12x³y+0.16x⁶ = (15y + 0.4x³)²
By comparing the left hand side with (15y + 0.4x³)²
<u>So, ∗ should be replaced with the monomial 0.4x³</u>
Answer:
9-6.92820323i Nothing else can be done.
Step-by-step explanation:
-48 is not a perfect square but 81 is a square. When you try to square -48 it comes to be 6.92820323i.
-6, because you can see a pattern in which the x coordinate of each pair is reversed to the opposite value, from positive to negative.
Answer:
a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:
The binomial distribution has two parameters:
n, which is the number of trials.
p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.
If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.
In this question:

So, lets verify the conditions:
np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5
n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5
Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.