Answer:
w= -1
Step-by-step explanation:
Use PEMDAS to solve.
9(1 + w) - 5w = 5
distribute 9 to everything inside the parentheses.
9 x 1 = 9
9 x w = 9w
rewrite equation
9 + 9w - 5w = 5
combine like terms
9w - 5w = 4w
rewrite equation
9 + 4w = 5
subtract 9 from both sides
9 - 9 = 0
5 - 9 = -4
rewrite equation
4w = -4
divide by 4 on both sides to get w by itself.
4w / 4 = w
-4 / 4 = -1
<u>Hope This Helps :)</u>
Answer: 10%
Step-by-step explanation:
given data:
no of cards left = 15.
no of diamonds left = 5.
probability of drawing a diamond = 5/15.
probability that the next two cards drawn to anika are diamonds without replacements.
= 5/15 * 4/14
= 2/21
= 0.0952 * 100
the probability that the two cards dealt to Anika would be diamond is 9.52% ~ 10%
Step-by-step explanation:
A) as you can see there is no current flowing in a bar magnet so (incorrect)
B) Lines of magnetic field is going in A-->B direction so it have starting and ending points.(incorrect)
C) Yes whenever a magnetic object is placed near the another magnetic object they either attract or repell so they have a force in a form of push and pull [correct]
D)No because magnetic field lines goes from North--> South so A is the South pole [ incorrect]
E) Yes it will point always towards North pole of the magnet [correct]
F) yes it depends upon the density of field lines[correct]
G)No the near the magnet is it becomes more stronger as compared to magnet kept far.(incorrect)
So option C E F are correct
Hope this helps
Have a great day
4 is not a factor of 30 because the factor of 30 is:
2*15
6*5
3*10
1*30
Answer:
c
Step-by-step explanation:
out of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, and 15, 11 only takes up one of those spots, and there being 15 numbers means that the only answer could be 1/15