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Gnom [1K]
4 years ago
9

Pakistan’s GDP in 2010, using the official exchange rate on 1/1/2010, is equal to $300 billion USD ($300,000,000,000). When 2010

GDP is converted using the PPP-implied exchange rate on 1/1/2010, the USD value of the GDP increases to $500 billion ($500,000,000,000). On 1/1/2010, is the Pakistani Rupee overvalued or undervalued against the USD? Explain your answer.
Business
1 answer:
docker41 [41]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Undervalued

Explanation:

The PPP exchange rate is the implicit exchange rate, so that everywhere, one dollar has the same purchasing power. In general, this exchange rate is different from the exchange rate on the market.

Because the same nominal GDP translates to a higher real GDP by using the PPP exchange rate, one Pakistan Rupee must be valued more in terms of U.S. dollars than in contexts of the market exchange rate under the PPP exchange rate. The Pakistan Rupee is therefore worth less than its true value in the economy, i.e., undervalued.

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It is estimated that the average cost of an outbound telemarketing sales calls on a business customer is about __________, versu
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Answer:

Around $35

Explanation:

Telemarketing sales calls offers lots of advantages like boosting sales in most organizations. You will have to sign a contract where you agree to pay for a minimum number of hours.

Another advantage is that If you need to do some research in advance of product development or product launches, there is some value in having those research calls made by the same telemarketing team that will ultimately be selling the product.

4 0
3 years ago
The following financial resources were among those received by Seco City during year 1:_____
Burka [1]

Answer:

A) $0

Explanation:

Seco City will record $0 as special revenue funds during year 1 with respect to the foregoing resources.

The $6,000,000 for acquisition of major capital facilities would be recorded as capital projects fund.

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8 0
3 years ago
Suppose a stock had an initial price of $57 per share, paid a dividend of $1.1 per share during the year, and had an ending shar
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

12.46%

Explanation:

Data provided

Dividend income = $1.1

Ending share per price = $63

Initial price = $57

The computation of the percentage total return is shown below:-

Total return = (Dividend income + (Ending share per price - Initial price)) ÷ Initial price

= ($1.1 + ($63 - $57)) ÷ 57

= ($1.1 + $6) ÷ 57

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6 0
3 years ago
Who carries the animal from the farm to the market or packer?
Ostrovityanka [42]

Answer:

was it a passage u had to read?

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
you are a consultant to a firm evaluating an expansion of its current business. The cash flow forecasts (in millions of dollar)
timama [110]

Question

you are a consultant to a firm evaluating an expansion of its current business. The cash flow forecasts (in millions of dollar) for the project as follows:

Year     cashflow

0           -100

1-10            15

0n the basis of the behavior of the firm's stock, you believe that the beta of the firm is 1.30. Assuming that the rate of return available on risk-free investments is 5% and that the expected rate of return on the market portfolio is 15% what is the net present value of the project

Answer:

NPV= -$32.58

Explanation:

The net present value of the investment is the cash inflow from the investment discounted at required rate of return. The required rate of return can be determined using the the formula below:

Ke= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

Ke =? , Rf- 5%,, Rm-15%, β- 1.30

Ke=5% + 1.30× (15-5)=  18%

The NPV = Present value of cash inflow - initial cost

 =  A×(1-(1+r)^(-10)/r  - initial cost

A- 15, r-18%

NPV = 15× (1-1.18^(-10)/0.18 - 100= -32.58

NPV = -$32.58

5 0
3 years ago
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