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sukhopar [10]
3 years ago
12

Give an opinion on the fact that poorer household are the hardest hit

Business
2 answers:
Korvikt [17]3 years ago
4 0
Assuming that you're talking about the hardest hit fund,

I agree that poorer households should received this type of fund. By allocating some money to the poorer households (preferably tho the one with no employment), it will help to stabilize the economy  as a whole

hope this helps
Andrew [12]3 years ago
3 0
Give an opinion on the fact that poorer household are the hardest hit.

Answer: Inflation hits a poorer household the hardest because as we already know the prices for many of the common necessities that they have to spend their money on rise while their wages stagnate.

I hope it helps, Regards.
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Starset, Inc., has a target debt-equity ratio of 1.15. Its WACC is 8.6 percent, and the tax rate is 21 percent.
aev [14]

Answer:

a. 4.94%

b. 11.48%

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the pretax cost of debt and cost of equity.

We proceed as follows;

a. From the question;

The debt equity ratio = 1.15

since Equity = 1 ; Then

Total debt + Total equity = 1 + 1.15 = 2.15

Mathematically ;

WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Pretax Cost of debt x Weight of debt x (1-Tax rate)

Where WACC = 8.6%

Cost of equity = 14%

Weight of equity = 1/(total debt + total equity) = 1/(1+1.15) = 1/2.15

Pretax cost of debt = ?

Weight of debt = debt equity ratio/total cost of debt = 1.15/2.15

Tax rate = 21% = 0.21

Substituting these values, we have;

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

Pretax cost debt = (8.6%-6.511628%)/(1.15/2.15 x (1-21%))

Pretax cost of debt = 4.94%

b. WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + After tax Cost of debt x Weight of debt

8.6% = Cost of equity x 1/2.15 + 6.1% x 1.15/2.15

Cost of equity = (8.6%-3.26279%)/(1/2.15)

Cost of equity = 11.48%

6 0
3 years ago
Sara shouppe has invested $100,000 in an account at her local bank. the bank will pay her a constant amount each year for 6 year
katovenus [111]
We can compute this using the Annual depreciation charge
Use the formula:
depreciationcharge= (Co-Cn)i/[(1+i)^n-1)]
where
Co= initial amount= $100,000
Cn- value after n years= $0
n= life of account= 6
i= interest rate=10%
Sunstituting all the values, we will get,
depreciation charge = $12960.74

The bank will have to pay Sara shouppe  $12960.74 for the investment of $100000 with 10% interest.


5 0
3 years ago
If a company purchases equipment costing $4,500 on credit, the effect on the accounting equation would be: Multiple Choice Asset
Firdavs [7]

Answer: Assets increase $4,500 and liabilities increase $4,500.

Explanation:

An asset are the properties which a business or an organization owns. An asset possess an economic value.

Since the equipment purchased is an asset, this will lead to an increase of assets by $4500 and since it was bought on credit and hasn't been paid for, liabilities will also increase by $4500.

8 0
3 years ago
What is an advantage of using a competency-based pay plan? Employees tend to work harder. Salaries are easy to calculate. Employ
nalin [4]

Answer:

Competency-based pay helps to tie your company's culture directly to the success of the company. Increased transparency: Employees will better understand what they have the potential to earn with a competency-based pay system and what skills they need to acquire to reach the pay they desire.

6 0
3 years ago
Consider a portfolio consisting of only Duke Energy and Microsoft. The percentage of your investment (portfolio weight) that you
Leokris [45]

Answer:

(2) 4%

Explanation:

The portfolio is considered to be less risky if its volatility is low. The higher standard deviation the more risky is the project. For Duke Energy and Microsoft the investment portfolio required is risk free investment. To calculate the risk free rate we calculate using the formula;

Var Rp = x1 2Var R1 + x2 2Var R2 +2 x1 x2 Corr (R1, R2) SD1 SD2

Var Rp = 0.14 + 0.44 + 2 (1) * (-1) * 6% * 24%

Solving for this we get the risk free investment at 4%.

3 0
3 years ago
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