Answer:
C = 6pi or approximately 18.84 mm
Step-by-step explanation:
The circumference of a circle is
C = pi *d
C = pi *6
We can approximate pi by 3.14
C = 3.14*6
C =18.84
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Step-by-step explanation:
Rearrange x/4-(-5)=0
Simplify x/4
-5 = -5/1 = -5*4/4
x- (-5*4)/4 = x+20/4
x+ 20/4 = 0
x+20/4 * 4 = 0*4
The equation now takes the shape: x+20=0
subtract 20 from both sides of the equation: x=-20
Answer: x=-20
Let us say that:
x = cost of shorts
y = cost of slacks
z = cost of sports coat
From the given statements, we can create the following
equations:
eqtn 1: 3 x + y =
10.96
eqtn 2: 7 x + 2 y +
z = 30.40
eqtn 3: 4 x + z =
14.45
Rewrite eqtn 1 explicit to y:
y = 10.96 – 3 x -->
eqtn 4
Rewrite eqtn 3 explicit to z:
z = 14.45 – 4x -->
eqtn 5
Plug in the values of y (eqtn 4) and z (eqtn 5) to eqtn
2:
7 x + 2 (10.96 – 3 x) + 14.45 – 4 x = 30.40
7 x + 21.92 – 6 x + 14.45 – 4 x = 30.40
- 3 x + 36.37 = 30.40
- 3 x = - 5.97
x = 1.99
Eqtn 4:
y = 10.96 – 3 x
y = 10.96 – 3 (1.99)
y = 4.99
Eqtn 5:
z = 14.45 – 4x
z = 14.45 – 4 (1.99)
z = 6.49
Therefore each shirt cost $1.99, each slacks cost $4.99,
and each sports coat cost $6.49.
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Answer:
Inverse functions Inverse Functions If f is a one-to-one function with domain A and range B, we can de ne an inverse function f 1 (with domain B ) by the rule f 1(y) = x if and only if f(x) = y: This is a sound de nition of a function, precisely because each value of y in the domain of f 1 has exactly one x in A associated to it by the rule y = f(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope it helps
