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krek1111 [17]
3 years ago
3

Use the Divergence Theorem to calculate the surface integral S F · dS; that is, calculate the flux of F across S. F(x, y, z) = x

2 sin(y)i + x cos(y)j − xz sin(y)k, S is the "fat sphere" x8 + y8 + z8 = 8.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Irina-Kira [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the Divergence Theorem,

\int \int F\,dS=\int \int \int divF\,\,dV

Here, for F=\left ( F_1,F_2,F_3 \right ),

divF=\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial F_3}{\partial z}

Take F_1=x^2\sin y\,,\,F_2=x\cos y\,\,,F_3=-xz\sin y

Differentiate F_1,F_2,F_3 with respect to x,y,z respectively,

\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial }{\partial x}x^2\sin y=2x\sin y\\\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial }{\partial y}x\cos y=-x\sin y\\\frac{\partial F_3}{\partial z}=\frac{\partial }{\partial z}-xz\sin y=-x\sin y

Therefore,

divF=\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial F_3}{\partial z}\\=2x\sin y-x\sin y-x\sin y\\=0

So,

\int \int F\,dS=\int \int \int divF\,\,dV=0

Tom [10]3 years ago
5 0

\vec F(x,y,z)=x^2\sin y\,\vec\imath+x\cos y\,\vec\jmath-xz\sin y\,\vec k

has divergence

\mathrm{div}\vec F(x,y,z)=2x\sin y-x\sin y-x\sin y=0

so that the flux of \vec F across S is 0 by the divergence theorem.

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