Answer:
a) 51.4
b) answer attached
c) 48.59% female
Step-by-step explanation:
a) Male driver = 100-48.6 = 51.4%
b) answer attached below
c) probability that out of 20-64 group a randomly selected sample is female
( 39.54 ÷ 81.36 ) x 100
= 48.59% chance of her being a female
Answer:
12 months
Step-by-step explanation:
2150-350=1800
1800÷150=12
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Reduction to normal from using lambda-reduction:
The given lambda - calculus terms is, (λf. λx. f (f x)) (λy. Y * 3) 2
For the term, (λy. Y * 3) 2, we can substitute the value to the function.
Therefore, applying beta- reduction on "(λy. Y * 3) 2" will return 2*3= 6
So the term becomes,(λf. λx. f (f x)) 6
The first term, (λf. λx. f (f x)) takes a function and an argument, and substitute the argument in the function.
Here it is given that it is possible to substitute the resulting multiplication in the result.
Therefore by applying next level beta - reduction, the term becomes f(f(f(6)) (f x)) which is in normal form.
A, 57%, because 0.40 divided by all possible outcomes, which is 0.70 because we know it will not be sunny tomorrow, is 0.57.
Answer:
Danny buys 13 candy canes for a party. He realizes he didn’t buy enough and buys 6 more. Danny then gives away 7 to his friend Sam. He heads back to the store because no one else biight candy canes and buys 9 times as many as he had left.
Hope this helps please give brainliest if you can!!
