Step-by-step explanation:
We remeber that If we compose a function and it's inverse,
A invertible function is one to one so suppose that we have two inverse, g(x) and h(x). Let plug them in ,
and
Since f is a invertible function, it is one to one so if g and h are both inverse of f, then they are eqaul
Thus, a invertible function can have only one inverse.
Answer:
theres no picture.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
2) (-2,1)
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve using the substitution method -x-(x+3)=1 using this equation you would find x which is -2
Substitute -2 into the given equation, y=-2+3 y=1
Therefore, The answer is (-2,1)
It would be greatly appreciated if you gave the the brainlest
<span>It doesn't matter that she guessed correctly on the first two questions, guessing the third question correctly is independent of guessing any other question correctly. Therefore, the probability is one out of four, 1/4.</span>
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Note that there are 16 total marbles. A is simply a set of sequential events. On the first, you have 10/16 chances to draw a red. Supposing this red is not replaced, the chance of drawing a second red will be 9/15; therefore, the probability of A is (10/16) * (9/15) = 0.375. Event B is translated into 2 events: Blue + (White or Red) or (White or Red) + Blue. The probabilities of each of these events, added together would be (2/16) * (14/15) + (14/16) * (2/15) = 0.2333333333; therefore, A is more probable.