Answer: 0.755
Explanation:
From the information given, the current per share value of the option if it expires in one year will be calculated as follows:
Firstly, we calculate the present value which will be:
= $28 / ( 1 + 0.05 )
= $28/1.05
= $26.667
The number of options needed will be:
= ( 34 - 28 )/ ( 4-0)
= 6/4
= 1.5
Therefore,
27.80 = (1.5 x Co) + [28 / (1+0.05)]
27.80 = 1.5Co + (28/1.05)
27.80 = 1.5Co + 26.667
1.5Co = 28.0 - 26.667
1.5Co = 1.1333
Co = 0.755
Therefore, the answer is 0.755
Answer: They are both right.
Explanation:
Firms in every market will always maximise profit where their Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost because at this point, resources are being fully utilized. This is therefore no different in a Perfectly competitive market so Skip is correct.
Peggy is also correct however because in a Perfectly Competitive market, the demand curve is perfectly elastic. This creates a situation where the Price, Marginal Revenue and Average Revenue are all the same and represent the demand curve as well.
With the Price being the same as the Marginal Revenue in a Perfectly competitive firm, that means that where the Price equals Marginal Cost is where the Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost as well so indeed perfectly competitive firms maximize profit where price equals marginal cost.
Answer:
B. the longrun profit would be negative.
Explanation:
A perfect competition is characterized by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.
In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.
Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.
A firm would shut down in the short run if price is less than average variable cost and exit if it is making a loss
Question Completion:
Describe the accounting treatment of Supplies Expenses.
Answer:
Supplies Expenses are debited while the Supplies account is credited with the supplies expenses.
Explanation:
This accounting treatment of Supplies Expenses reduces the balance of the Supplies account by the amount of supplies used during the period. Thus, what is left in the Supplies account is the cost of the unused supplies at the end of the accounting period. The treatment also accords with the accrual concept, which requires that expenses are matched to the revenues that they generate in the period.
