Answer:
B) negatively correlated.
Explanation:
The case is set, would reflect a negative correlation between wealth and marital satisfaction.
This means that not necessarily the wealth would cause marriages to report higher levels of happiness or satisfaction. This would imply that there is an inverse relationship between two variables - when one variable decreases, the other increases. So to the contrary, it would mean the opposite. Having less money would favor marital satisfaction.
It is so believed that money issues are important variables so, they should be reconsidered. In the case as stated having more money turns into less satisfaction of the pair.
A example that is similar to this as a negative correlation, is the birth of children, and mariage, since the condition creates stress that the new creature poses to the relationship between the pair, that was often better treated.
Philip should stop for a while and try to do an objective research on how the given problem is seen in the country, and then only would he be able to assess how he sees the situation, so as to better understand all the problems.
It will be b because I’m saying so lol but it’s b 4.00
The aspect of the definition of happiness that gives the impression that it is a long-term state rather than a brief mood that we experience from time to time is subjective wellbeing.
Happiness is a state of wellbeing involving satisfaction in the pleasant, good, and meaningful aspects of life.
Happiness can either be a long-term state or a brief mood depending on the satisfaction rate.
If happiness is given an expression that is long-term, it is known as subjective wellbeing since it is a term for life satisfaction and happiness.
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/11147895
