Answer:
c) activities through which a product or service is created and delivered to customers.
Explanation:
A value chain is the entire range of activities that a company undertakes to create a product or a service. These activities include design, production, marketing and distribution. A manufacturing company will have its value chain processes start with the procurement of raw materials and end when the product is sold.
Companies will, from time to time, perform value chain analysis. Value chain analysis involves a detailed examination of all the business processes and procedures. The purpose of the analysis is to improve the efficiency of the value chain. An efficient system of production has cost-saving benefits to the organization.
<span>The financial crisis in Greece is described as
depression rather than recession is because the Greece’s economy had taken a
severe and sustained economic downturn. Greece’s economy has been marked by a
substantial and sustained shortfall of the ability to purchase goods relative
to the amount that could be produced. Depression is a more severe form of recession.
Recession lasts a few months, while depression lasts longer. </span>
Answer:
c. $24,500
Explanation:
The allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra-asset account that records the amount of receivables expected to be uncollectiblea, makes a reduction of the total amount of accounts receivable appearing on a company’s balance sheet. There are two way to estimate uncollectible accounts: the percentage of sales method and the accounts receivable aging method.
ABC Company uses the percentage of sales method - application a flat percentage to the total amount of net credit sales for the period.
Estimated uncollectible = 3% x $750,000 = $22,500
The company establishes an allowance for doubtful accounts for $22,500 while simultaneously reporting $22,500 in bad debt expense.
Before adjusting on December 31, 2004, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $2,000.
The balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after adjustment is $22,500 + $2,000 = $24,500
Answer: $79.30
Explanation:
Cost of the house = $96400
Down payment = 25% × $96400 = $24100
Mortgage = $96400 - $24100 = $72300
Interest = 5.5%
Time = 5 years
Monthly payment.= $410.66
The interest for first payment will be:
= $72300 × 5.5% × 1/12
= $72300 × 0.055 × 0.08333
= $331.36
Therefore, the amount of the first monthly payment is used to reduce the principal will be:
= $410.66 - $331.36
= $79.30
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The reason is that the opening inventory value of year 2 is the closing amount of the year 1. Its similar to the closing cash amount left in till at the end of year 1 is the opening amount at the year 2. So the opening inventory of year 2 is closing inventory of year 1. This means the closing inventory of year 1 has decreased by $10,000.
As we know that:
Cost of goods sold = Op. Inventory + Purchases - Cl. Inventory
This means if the closing amount increases the cost of goods decreases and in the given scenario the closing inventory of year 1 has been decreased which means that the cost of goods sold has increased which will decrease the profit. And if the profit decreases then:
Earning per share = Profit after tax (Decreased) / Number of share (Same)
As the profit has decreased the earning per share will also decrease.
