There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
= 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
4(x+15)>_120
4x+60>_120
-60. -60
4x>_60
— —
4 4
X>_12
When the leading coefficient is a minus
SU would be the hypotenuse so you can use Pythagorean Theorem to solve this problem.
42^2 + 56^2 = c^2
1764 + 3136 = c^2
4900 = c^2
70 = c
He ran more than enough that’s all extra talk
