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yarga [219]
3 years ago
12

Lightfoot Inc., a software development firm, has stock outstanding as follows: 40,000 shares of cumulative preferred 1% stock, $

125 par and 100,000 shares of $150 par common. During its first four years of operations, the following amounts were distributed as dividends: first year, $36,000; second year, $58,000; third year, $75,000; fourth year, $124,000.
Business
1 answer:
Kitty [74]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

#1 36,000 preferred

#2 58,000 preferred

#3 58,000 preferred //  17,000 common

#4 50,000 preferred // 74,000 common

Explanation:

preferred stock dividends:

40,000 x $125 each x 1% = 50,000

the common stock will take whatever is left after preferred stock.

first year: $ 36,000

asthe preferred stock are cumulative, there is 14,00 dividends in arrears

second year: $ 58,000

we got the 50,00 for the current year plus the 16,000 in arrears

this amount declared is not enough, there are still 8,00 in arrears

third year: $ 75,000

there is 58,000 dividends for preferred stock

the rest goes for common stock

fourth year: $ 124,000

there is no arrears so the preferred only receive the 50,000 and the rest goes for common shares.

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Which of the following statements about the impact of scarcity in every economic system is correct?
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
You are considering the purchase of a home that would require a mortgage of $150,000. How much more in total interest will you p
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

$111,991.59

Explanation:

using a loan calculator, I found the following information:

principal $150,000

apr 5.65%

360 monthly payments of $865.85

total payments $311,707.33

total interest charged on the loan $161,707.33

principal $150,000

apr 4%

180 monthly payments of $1,109.53

total payments $199,715.74

total interest charged on the loan $49,715.74

if you choose the 30 year mortgage, you will pay $161,707.33 - $49,715.74  = $111,991.59

3 0
2 years ago
Legacy issues $570,000 of 8.5%, four-year bonds dated January 1, 2019, that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31
Doss [256]

Answer:

journal entry  based on straight line method are given below

Explanation:

given data

issues = $570,000

rate = 8.5 %

time = 4 year

issued = $508,050

market rate = 12%

to find out

prepare journal entry

solution

journal entry  based on straight line method

date                    general journal                              Debit             Credit  

June 30               bond interest expenses                $31969  

                            Discount on Bonds payable                                $7744

                             = (570000-508050 ) ÷ 8

                              Cash = 570000 × 8.5% ÷ 2                                $24225

December 31       Bond interest expense                  $31969  

                            Discount on Bonds payable                                $7744

                             = (570000-508050 ) ÷ 8

                              Cash = 570000 × 8.5% ÷ 2                                $24225

5 0
3 years ago
The junior class at Summerfield High School sold a total of 375 tickets for their spring festival. The adult tickets sold for $7
katrin [286]

The number of student's ticket sold is 200.

Two equations can be gotten from the question:

a + b = 375 equation 1

7.5a + 4.5b = 2,212.50 equation 2

Where:

a = number of adult ticket sold

b = number of children's ticket sold

In order to determine the value of b, multiply equation 1 by 7.5

7.5a + 7.5b = 2812.50 equation 3

Subtract equation 2 from 3

3b = 600

Divide both sides by 3

b = 600 / 3

b = 200

To learn more about simultaneous equations, please check: brainly.com/question/25875552

8 0
2 years ago
The direct write-off method of accounting for bad debts uses an allowance account. uses a contra asset account. is the preferred
jeyben [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": does not require estimates of bad debt losses.

Explanation:

There are mainly two approaches while recognizing bad debts (unpaid debts):  <em>the allowance method </em>and <em>the direct write-off method</em>. Using the allowance method the unpaid account receivable goes through a series of stages until it is recognized as a bad debt. There are no set criteria to do so. When the firm eventually recognizes and calculates the amount of a bad expense, it is recorded in an allowance account. The negative balance diminishes the company's revenue.

The direct write-off method does not generate any allowance account. The account receivable is simply written-off after the company determines the debt as uncollectible. Thus, there is no need to estimate bad debt losses using this approach.

8 0
3 years ago
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