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Dmitrij [34]
3 years ago
12

Can someone help me? I don't understand how to do this.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Dimas [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

84%

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to find the area of both circles, so-

\pi 5^{2} = 78.54

\pi2^{2} = 12.57

Then, you need to divide the answers to find the %, so 12.57/78.54

this gives you 16%, but that is the chance of it landing in the shaded region. The chance of it landing in the non shaded region would then be 84%.

almond37 [142]3 years ago
5 0

it should be 42percent I didn't really know my bad

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Answer:

By the way that the line is facing.

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2 years ago
The teams ratio of games won to games played was 5 to 6. If the team played 36 games how many games did The team fail to win
alexdok [17]

Answer:

well this is simple 5x6= 30 and 6x6= 36 so its 30/6

Step-by-step explanation:

because we need to get 6 to 36 and we know that 6x6 then you also have to multiply 5x6 so then thats 30

5 0
2 years ago
Halle solved 664/48 below. She got a quotient of 13 with a remainder of 40. How could she solve 659/48 without redoing the work?
Lerok [7]
She should multiply the quotient by 48.
3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you are given a bag containing n unbiased coins. You are told that n-1 of these coins are normal, with heads on one
gladu [14]

Answer:

The (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is 2/(1 + n)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Total unbiased coin = n

Normal coins =n - 1

Fake = 1

The (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is represented by

P(Fake | Head)

And it's calculated as follows;

P(Fake | Head) = P(Fake, Head) ÷ P(Head) ----- (1)

Where P(Fake, Head) = P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake)

P(Fake) = 1/n --- because only one is fake

P(Head | Fake) = n/n because all coins (including the fake) have head

So, P(Fake, Head) = P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) becomes

P(Fake, Head) = 1/n * n/n

P(Fake, Head) = 1/n

P(Head) is calculated by

P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) + P(Normal) * P(Head | Normal)

P(Fake) * P(Head | Fake) = P(Fake, Head) = 1/n (as calculated above)

P(Normal) * P(Head | Normal) = ½ * (n - 1)/n ----- considering that the coin also has a tail with equal probability as that of the head.

Going back to (1)

P(Fake | Head) = P(Fake, Head) ÷ P(Head) becomes

P(Fake | Head) = (1/n) ÷ ((1/n) + (½(n-1)/n))

= (1/n) ÷ ((1/n) + (½(n-1)/n))

= (1/n) ÷ (1/n + (n - 1)/2n)

= (1/n) ÷ (2 + n - 1)/(2n)

= (1/n) ÷ (1 + n)/(2n)

= (1/n) * (2n)/(1 + n)

= 2/(1 + n)

Hence, the (conditional) probability that the coin you chose is the fake coin is 2/(1 + n)

5 0
3 years ago
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maw [93]

Answer:

if you want to add the answer is 32.2

If you want to subtract the answer is 1.7

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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