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kvasek [131]
3 years ago
10

One leg of a right triangle measures 6 inches. The remaining leg measures 6√3 inches. What is the measure of the angle opposite

the leg that is 6 inches long?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Simora [160]3 years ago
7 0
30°
Here's why:
Using the well-known Pythagorian theorem we can reckon how long the hypotenuse is:
c^2=6^2+36*3 -> c=12
Knowing that sin(a)=a/c=6/12=0.5 the measure of the angle in degrees is 30°
Hope could help :)
astra-53 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

30°

Step-by-step explanation:

One leg of a right triangle measures 6 inches.

Leg 1 (Opposite) = 6

The other leg measure 6\sqrt{3} inches.

Leg 2 (Base ) = 6\sqrt{3}

Let the measure of angle opposite of the leg 6 inches be Ф

Using trigonometry identity

\tan\theta=\dfrac{\text{Opposite}}{\text{Base}}

\tan\theta=\dfrac{6}{6\sqrt{3}}

Cancel 6 from top and bottom

\tan\theta=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}}

\theta=\tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt3})

\theta=30^\circ

Hence, The measure of opposite angle of leg 6 inches is 30°

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Setler [38]

Answer: none

Step-by-step explanation:

(A)

(16÷32/10) ×2 + 0.2×(90)

Using bodmas principle ; solve bracket

(16×10/32)×2 + (2/10×90)

10+18 =28

(B)

{(16÷32/10) × (2+2/10)} ×90

Open brackets

{(16×10/32) × (22/10)} ×90

(5×11/5) ×90

11×90 = 990

(C)

16÷{(32/10×2) + (2/10×8)} +82

Open brackets, solve division first, dolled by addition

16÷(32/5 + 8/5) +82

16÷(40/5) +82

16÷8 +82

2+82= 84

(D)

[16÷(32/10 ×2) + 0.2× (90)]

16÷ (32/5) + 2/10 ×90

Solve division

16×5/32 + 18

5/2 + 18

L.c.m of denominator (2&1) =2

(5+36) / 2 = 41/2

=20.5

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A candy store sells chocolate for $7.91 per pound. The piece you want to buy is .17 lbs. how much will it cost
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Answer:

1 piece will cost 2 cents

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide 7.91 by 0.17, you will get 0.021492, and if you round that up you will get 0.02 which is 2 cents. Now if you want to find the price of more pieces, you can just multiply 2 by however the person needs to buy, and write that as money :)))

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Philip ran out of time while taking a multiple-choice test and plans to guess the last 4 questions. Each question has 5 possible
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Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

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Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:

n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.

The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:

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0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

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