True. One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the allocation rate that is used in the determination of the estimated cost of the manufacturing overhead. It is used to show in either the order of the product or that of the job.
Hence based on this question we can say that it is true because the reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.
Read more on overhead rate here: brainly.com/question/13312583
#SPJ1
If sally is creative then being a poet would make the most sense
Answer: 9.48%
Explanation:
Given Data
Debts ;
$7 billion
$2 billion
$13 billion
Beta of Fords stock = Beta = 1.50
Market risk premium = Rp = 8.0%
Risk free rate of interest = Rf = 4.0%
Equity rate = 1.7
Market risk rate = 0.8
Risk free rate = 0.03
Therefore;
Cost of Equity ( Re ) = Risk free rate + equity rate × market risk premium
= 0.03 + (1.7 × 0.8)
= 0.166
Preferred Stock Cost ( PSC)= Dividend ÷ stock price
= 4 ÷ 30
= 0.1333
Total debt = 13 + 6 + 2 = 21 billion
D% = 13 billion ÷ 21 billion
= 0.619
E% = 6 billion ÷ 21 billion
= 0.286
P% = 2 billion ÷ 21 billion
= 0.095
RD = debt capital at 8% maturity rate
Tc= 30%
Rwac =(w/ preferred stock)
= Re × E% + PSC × P% + Rd ( 1- Tc) D%
Rwac = (0.166)(0.286) + (0.1333)(0.095) + (0.08)(1- 0.3)*(0.619)
= 0.094803 * 100
= 9.48%
At 30% tax rate Ford weighted average cost is 9.48%
Answer: the proportion of a country's people that can read and right
Explanation:
originally literacy rate is based on the number of LITERATE persons in a give age group.
That statement is False
If we change units in one of the variables the value increase, decrease, or stay the same
The value of the correlation is the result of the interractions of all the units in that variable, so changing onle one of the variables does not necessarily change the end result of the value.
