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suter [353]
3 years ago
11

A national interest rate on houses for 25 years is 4.3%. A banker in a large northwestern city believes that the local interest

rates are lower than the national rate. What is the null hypothesis that this banker wishes to test?
Mathematics
1 answer:
stepladder [879]3 years ago
7 0
The national interest rate on houses for 25 years is 4.3%. The banker wishes to test that the local interest rates are lower than the national rate. So he should use the initial data of 4.3% interest as his base data. Then he should investigate the rates of houses in the local vicinities and compare it to his base data. 
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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
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Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

g(x)=x^2+4 and f(x)=\frac{8}{x}


Step-by-step explanation:

If we want to express y as y=f(g(x)), this means that put the function g(x) into x of f(x) to get y.

The function y is given as y=\frac{8}{x^{2}+4}

<u>So we need to figure out a function g(x) that we can put into another f(x) to get y</u>

If we let g(x)=x^2+4 and f(x)=\frac{8}{x}, we can clearly see that putting g(x) into x of f(x) will give us  \frac{8}{x^2+4}, which is y.


Hence g(x)=x^2+4 and f(x)=\frac{8}{x}

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Step-by-step explanation:

y iterscept is -4 slope 2/3 rise over run

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5+4+2 (-3)+7+(-5) equals to?
Cerrena [4.2K]
5+4+2(-3)+7+(-5)
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And example of commutative property of multiplication
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Answer:

4 × 3 = 3 × 4 4 \times 3 = 3 \times 4 4×3=3×44, times, 3, equals, 3, times, 4.

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