Rent expense, land purchased, utility, salary expense, accounts payable, dividend, salaries, insurance---that is your expense for the year. Look at your income is Retained earning, accounts receivable, service revenue, common stock. Add all the expense and subtract from earning that will be your net income.
Answer:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Account&DEBIT&CREDIT\\$Cash&18,900&-\\$Account\: Receivable&60,100&\\$Allowance \: doubful \: accounts&&150\\$Inventory&186,500&\\$Supplies&7,170&\\$Prepaid Insurnace&3,090&\\$Equipment&51,300&-\\$Acc \: Dep \: Equipment&-&18,100\\$Accounts \: Payable&&9,000\\$SS \: tax \: payable&&1420\\$Medicare \: tax \: payable&&340\\$Capital&&298,050\\&327,060&327,060\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7DAccount%26DEBIT%26CREDIT%5C%5C%24Cash%2618%2C900%26-%5C%5C%24Account%5C%3A%20Receivable%2660%2C100%26%5C%5C%24Allowance%20%5C%3A%20doubful%20%5C%3A%20accounts%26%26150%5C%5C%24Inventory%26186%2C500%26%5C%5C%24Supplies%267%2C170%26%5C%5C%24Prepaid%20Insurnace%263%2C090%26%5C%5C%24Equipment%2651%2C300%26-%5C%5C%24Acc%20%20%5C%3A%20Dep%20%5C%3A%20Equipment%26-%2618%2C100%5C%5C%24Accounts%20%5C%3A%20Payable%26%269%2C000%5C%5C%24SS%20%5C%3A%20tax%20%5C%3A%20payable%26%261420%5C%5C%24Medicare%20%5C%3A%20tax%20%5C%3A%20payable%26%26340%5C%5C%24Capital%26%26298%2C050%5C%5C%26327%2C060%26327%2C060%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Explanation:
The sales, expenses, income summary and drawings accounts will be closed therefore will not be part of the post-closed trial balance.
Thew capital Account will suffer the net change of all these account thus, we can list the assets and liabilities and then, solve for Capital by the difference:
Assets = Laibilities + Equity
327,060 = 150 + 18,100 + 9,000 + 1,420 + 340 + Capital
Capital = 327,060 - (150 + 18,100 + 9,000 + 1,420 + 340)
Capital = 298,050
The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.
- So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
Hence, the Option B is correct.
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