Answer: The multiplicative inverse of 6 is 1/6.
Step-by-step explanation:
So you make them the same common denominator
As you see, 2/10 = 8/40
2/4 = x/40, multiply by 10
2/4 = 20/40
Then add because same denominator
Now you would get:
8/40 + 20/40 = 28/40
Answer:
no because 2/3 is greater
Step-by-step explanation:
Using functions, the input is x, the output is y.
<u>Break down the problem:</u>
The output (y) is (equals) one-fourth (1/4) of the input (x)
y equals 1/4 of x
Answer:
1. 150% 2. 14%
Step-by-step explanation: