A decline in the real GDP that occurs for at least two or more quarters is called a depression. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is option "b". There is a very thin line of difference between recession and depression. when the real GDP falls for a repeated number of periods, then it is depression.
Answer:
1. $13,500
2. $13,500
3. $336,500
Explanation:
1. Bad debt expense:
= Sales × Percent of sales uncollectible
= $900,000 × 1.5%
= $13,500
Therefore, the bad debt expense for the year 2019 is $13,500.
2. Allowance for Doubtful accounts = $13,500
3. For the end of 2019, what is the company's net realizable value:
= Accounts receivable - Allowance for Doubtful accounts
= $350,000 - $13,500
= $336,500
Answer:
Outsourcing.
Explanation:
Outsourcing is a process to get the work done from a foreign supplier at a cheaper rate without or minimum compromising on the quality of work. Outsourcing is done by companies of those countries, where labour rate is high or scarcity of labour in the national market. It also diverse the culture of companies. Work which are outsourced to other countries are mainly non fundamental and its role is to provide support to the core company.
Answer: $5,440
Explanation:
When using the percent of sales method to determine bad debts, the company estimates a percentage that it believes will results in uncollectible debt and then applies it to the sales/revenue figure. The figure that is calculated is then debited along with the debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful accounts to the Bad debts account for the year and credited to the Allowance for doubtful accounts.
This company estimates that they will have 0.6% of credit sales uncollectible.
There are also $790,000 in sales of which all are on credit.
The Uncollectible estimate is therefore,
= 790,000 * 0.6%
= $4,740
This figure is then added to the debit amount on the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts.
= 4,470 + 700
= $5,440
Note; A debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful debt account signifies that the bad debts were higher than anticipated the last time. This is why the figure is added to the current bad debts expense.
Answer:
The answer is $3,888.22
Explanation:
This is an annuity due because the cash flow is being done on the first day of each period.
Annuity is a fixed sum of money paid to or receceived from someone or business every year.
Future Value(FV) = $30,000
Interest rate(i or I/Y) = 10%
Number of years(N)= 6 years
Annuity (PMT) = ?
Using a Financial calculator to solve it (Texa BA II Plus )
Annuity (equal contributions) will be $3,888.22
