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romanna [79]
3 years ago
12

Holly owns a dance studio. To improve sales of dance classes, she is reviewing how her marketing team could update the company's

online presence.
As part of the rebrand, the team listened to customer feedback and mapped customer journeys. They identified two things online customers generally struggled with: navigating the website and finding the business's contact information.
Which of the brand's touchpoints should Holly modify to help address her customer's feedback?
​
Business
1 answer:
ASHA 777 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b. website layout

c. email marketing

Explanation:

The website layout is the layout i.e created for a website. It should be attractive to the owners and users. Moreover it should be easy to navigate it so that if anyone could access to the website he or she could easily access it without any hurdle.

The email marketing is a technique in which we can send one message to large audience in the same time. It helps in saving cost and time

According to the given situation, the online customers struggled with website navigate and to find out the contact information related to the business

So to modify and help address her customer feedback the website layout and the email marketing plays a vital role and the same is to be considered

You might be interested in
Find the APR in each of the following cases. EAR Number of Times Compounded APR 15.3% Semiannually 8.7% Monthly 9.4% Weekly 14.9
jasenka [17]

Answer:

14.76%

8.37%

8.99%

13.89%

Explanation:

the formula for finding APR is - periodic interest rate x number of times compounded

Periodic interest rate = (EAR + 1 ) ^1/m - 1

(0.153 + 1)^1/2 - 1 = 0.0738 = 7.38

APR = 2 x 7.38% = 14.76%

(0.087 + 1)^1/12 - 1 = 0.006976

APR = 0.006976 X 12 = 0.0837 = 8.37%

(0.094 + 1 ) 1/52 - 1 = 0.001729

0.001729 x 52 = 0.0899 = 8.99%

(0.149 + 1)^1/365 - 1 = 0.000381

0.000381 x 365 = 0.138918 = 13.89%

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose that there are many stocks in the security market and that the characteristics of stocks A and B are given as follows: S
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

0.135 or 13.5%

Explanation:

Given in the question are the following:

ERA = Expected return of Stock A = 12% = 0.12

ERB = Expected return of Stock B = 19% = 0.19

SDA = Standard deviation of Stock A = 3% = 0.03

SDB = Standard deviation of Stock B = 9% = 0.09

CAB = Correlation between A and B = -1

The correlation of -1 between Stock A and Stock B indicates that there a perfect negative correlation between the two stocks. Therefore, we can create a risk-free portfolio which its rate of return will be the risk-free rate in equilibrium.  

If we let wA denotes the proportion of investment in Stock A, and let wB denotes the proportion of investment in Stock B, the proportion of this portfolio can be obtained by setting its standard deviation equal to zero. Since there is a perfect negative correlation, the standard deviation of this portfolio (SDP) can be given as follows:

Absolute value [(wA × SDA) – (wB × SDB)] = SDP …………………………………….. (1)

Note that wB = (1 – wA) since the sum of the weight must be equal to 1.

Substituting all the relevant values into equation and set SDP = 0, we have  

[(0.03 × wA) − (0.11 × (1 - wA))] = 0

0.03wA – 0.11 + 0.11wA = 0

0.03wA + 0.11wA = 0.11

0.14wA = 0.11

wA = 0.11 ÷ 0.14 = 0.785714285714286

Since wB = 1 –wA, therefore:

wB = 1 - 0.785714285714286 = 0.214285714285714

The expected rate of return of the portfolio (ERP) can be estimated as follows:

ERP = (wA × ERA) + (wB × ERB)  ................................. (2)

Substituting all the relevant values into equation (2), we have:

ERP = (0.785714285714286 × 0.12) + (0.214285714285714 × 0.19)  

       = 0.0942857142857143 + 0.0407142857142857

ERP = 0.135 or 13.5%

Therefore, the value of the risk-free rate must be 13.5%.

4 0
3 years ago
Finishing Touches has two classes of stock authorized: 8%, $10 par preferred, and $1 par value common. The following transaction
natita [175]

Answer:

FINISHING TOUCHES

Balance Sheet  December 31, 2015

(Stockholders’ Equity Section)

Stockholders’ equity:

Common stock  = $100,000

Preferred stock  =  $30,000

Treasury stock  = -$5,500

Additional paid-in capital  = $3,216,000

Total paid-in capital  = $3,340,500

Retained earnings  = $63,100

(Preferred stock  = -$,30,000)

Total stockholders’ equity = $3,373,600

Explanation:

a) 100,000 Common stock issued at $35 per share with $1 par is valued at $1 in the Common Stock section while the difference $34 $(35 - 1) is taken to the Additional paid-in capital at 100,000 x $34.

b) 3,000 Preferred Stock  issued at $11 per share with $10 par is valued at $10 in the Preferred Stock while the difference $1 $(11 - 10) is taken to the Additional paid-in capital at 3,000 x $1.

c) Treasury stock is the repurchase of stock by the company.  It is a contra account to the equity accounts.  It is therefore deducted from the equity section.  Two methods exist for its treatment: the cost method and the par value treatment.  We used the par value treatment.

This involves stating the par value movements in the Treasury stock while  the additional loss or additional gain is taken to the Additional Paid-in Capital section.

On the other hand, the cost method treats the cost of repurchase in the Treasury stock.

d) Additional Paid-in Capital (APIC) account records the above par value received.  It is also where the above par value is deducted for Treasury Stock.

e) Retained Earnings represent the net income after paying dividends to common stockholders and preferred stockholders.

f) To get the total stockholders' equity, the preferred stock is deducted.  Holders of preferred stock are not equity holders.

7 0
3 years ago
Rajan Company's most recent balance sheet reported total assets of $2.10 million, total liabilities of $0.70 million, and total
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

0.5.

Explanation:

Assets - Liabilities = Owner's Equity.

As the name states, the debt to equity ratio is simply obtained by dividing total debt (liabilities) by the total equity, total assets should not be included:

DER = \frac{0.70}{1.40} =0.5

Rajan Company's  debt to equity ratio is 0.5.

4 0
3 years ago
Kearney Inc. has a factory with the following characteristics: direct labor of $82056, direct materials of $52432 fixed overhead
frutty [35]

Answer:

The amount of cost from Pool A that is allocated to LQ6 is $7,802.

Explanation:

Since Pool A includes all variable overhead and uses direct labor as the allocation base, we can obtain the following from the question:

Direct labor = $82,056

Variable overhead = $146,362

Number of labor hours used by LQ6 = 162

Factory's labor costs per hour = $27

Therefore, we have:

Factory's labor cost of LQ6 = Number of labor hours used by LQ6 * Factory's labor costs per hour = 162 * $27 = $4,374

Variable over allocated to LQ6 from Pool A = (Factory's labor cost of LQ6 / Direct labor) * Variable overhead = ($4,374 / $82,056) * $146,362 = $7,801.83518572682

Rounding to whole number of $ as required, we have:

Variable over allocated to LQ6 from Pool A = $7,802

Therefore, the amount of cost from Pool A that is allocated to LQ6 is $7,802.

4 0
3 years ago
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