Answer:
fourth option is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
If f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other, then
f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x ← option 4
9514 1404 393
Answer:
PJ ⊥ KP
Step-by-step explanation:
The little square corner at point P is the mark that indicates lines are perpendicular.
That is the only on mark indicating perpendicular in this diagram. It shows line KI to be perpendicular to line MJ. Then all of the segments on one of those lines are perpendicular to any of the segments on the other of those two lines.
Just to make sure we don't get in trouble with interpretation, we should probably include point P in any segments we list.
MJ ⊥ KI
OJ ⊥ KI
MP ⊥ KI
OP ⊥ KI
PJ ⊥ KI
In any of the above, KI can be replaced by KP or PI and the statement will remain true.
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<em>Additional comment</em>
Segment NI, being parallel to OP, is also perpendicular to KI. However, it is not marked as such.
MO is perpendicular to PI, but isn't really marked as such.
Answer:
a) The probability that at least 5 ties are too tight is P=0.0432.
b) The probability that at most 12 ties are too tight is P=1.
Step-by-step explanation:
In this problem, we could represent the proabilities of this events with the Binomial distirbution, with parameter p=0.1 and sample size n=20.
a) We can express the probability that at least 5 ties are too tight as:
The probability that at least 5 ties are too tight is P=0.0432.
a) We can express the probability that at most 12 ties are too tight as:
The probability that at most 12 ties are too tight is P=1.
Answer:
Yes it is
Step-by-step explanation:
this is because when you multiply 5x5 you get 25