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2 years ago

Please someone help, annotations would be ideal!

Mathematics

2 answers:

rjkz [21]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

LCM/ 5880 HCF/ 420

Step-by-step explanation:

masha68 [24]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

lcm = 5880 hcf = 140

Step-by-step explanation:

The factors of 420 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 12, 14, 15, 20, 21, 28, 30, 35, 42, 60, 70, 84, 105, 140, 210, 420

The factors of 1960 are: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 14, 20, 28, 35, 40, 49, 56, 70, 98, 140, 196, 245, 280, 392, 490, 980, 1960

Then the greatest common factor is 140.

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The least-squares regression model y =−3.4+5.2x and correlation coefficient r=−0.66 were calculated for a set of bivariate data

Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

$r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}$

For this case the value of r = -0.66

Now we can calculate the determination coeffcient:

$r^2 = (-0.66)^2 = 0.4356$

And then we can conclude that 43.56% of the variation in y can be explained by the explanatory variable

And then 100-43.56 = 56.44 % of the variation in y that cannot be explained by the explanatory variable

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we need to calculate the slope with the following formula:

$m=\frac{S_{xy}}{S_{xx}}$

Where:

$S_{xy}=\sum_{i=1}^n x_i y_i -\frac{(\sum_{i=1}^n x_i)(\sum_{i=1}^n y_i)}{n}$

$S_{xx}=\sum_{i=1}^n x^2_i -\frac{(\sum_{i=1}^n x_i)^2}{n}$

$\bar x= \frac{\sum x_i}{n}$

$\bar y= \frac{\sum y_i}{n}$

And we can find the intercept using this:

$b=\bar y -m \bar x$

And the model obtained for this case is:

$y = -3.4 +5.2 x$

The correlation coefficient is a "statistical measure that calculates the strength of the relationship between the relative movements of two variables". It's denoted by r and its always between -1 and 1.

And in order to calculate the correlation coefficient we can use this formula:

$r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}$

For this case the value of r = -0.66

Now we can calculate the determination coeffcient:

$r^2 = (-0.66)^2 = 0.4356$

And then we can conclude that 43.56% of the variation in y can be explained by the explanatory variable

And then 100-43.56 = 56.44 % of the variation in y that cannot be explained by the explanatory variable

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2 years ago

DIVIDE. Show how you used partial quotients to find your answer.<br><br> 1,562 ÷ 34

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1562 divided by 35= 45 with a remainder of 32

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3 years ago

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Butoxors [25]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Point-slope equation for line of slope m that passes through (x₀,y₀):

y-y₀ = m(x-x₀)

In your case, m=5 and (x₀,y₀)=(1,9):

y-9 = 5(x-1)

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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