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Alecsey [184]
3 years ago
8

Help me ASPAP!!! I will mark you as brainliest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
3 0
1. They are alike because they are all three dimensional .
2. The are different because they all have different sides.
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Inverse operation steps for 19=h/3-8 steps in words
Studentka2010 [4]
19 + 8 = h/3or h/3 = 27Multiply both sides by 3h = 27*3 = 81
7 0
3 years ago
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The cone below has a radius of 15 centimeters and a height of 36 centimeters.
andriy [413]

The answer of the question is 'b'.

4 0
4 years ago
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Find the value of h(45) for the function below. h(x)=1/9(90 - x). A. 15 B. 5 C. -35 D. -315
kvasek [131]

Answer:

Inverse Functions

One-to-one

Suppose f : A ⇥ B is a function. We call f one-to-one if every distinct

pair of objects in A is assigned to a distinct pair of objects in B. In other

words, each object of the target has at most one object from the domain

assigned to it.

There is a way of phrasing the previous definition in a more mathematical

language: f is one-to-one if whenever we have two objects a, c ⇤ A with

a ⌅= c, we are guaranteed that f(a) ⌅= f(c).

Example. f : R ⇥ R where f(x) = x2 is not one-to-one because 3 ⌅= 3

and yet f(3) = f(3) since f(3) and f(3) both equal 9.

Horizontal line test

If a horizontal line intersects the graph of f(x) in more than one point,

then f(x) is not one-to-one.

The reason f(x) would not be one-to-one is that the graph would contain

two points that have the same second coordinate – for example, (2, 3) and

(4, 3). That would mean that f(2) and f(4) both equal 3, and one-to-one

functions can’t assign two dierent objects in the domain to the same object

of the target.

If every horizontal line in R2 intersects the graph of a function at most

once, then the function is one-to-one.

Examples. Below is the graph of f : R ⇥ R where f(x) = x2. There is a

horizontal line that intersects this graph in more than one point, so f is not

one-to-one.

66

Inverse Functions

One-to-one

Suppose f : A —* B is a function. We call f one-to-one if every distinct

pair of objects in A is assigned to a distinct pair of objects in B. In other

words, each object of the target has at most one object from the domain

assigned to it.

There is a way of phrasing the previous definition in a more mathematical

language: f is one-to-one if whenever we have two objects a, c e A with

a ~ c, we are guaranteed that f(a) $ f(c).

Example. f : IR —* JR where f(x) = x2 is not one-to-one because 3 ~ —3

and yet f(3) = f(—3) since f(3) and f(—3) both equal 9.

Horizontal line test

If a horizontal line intersects the graph of f(.x) in more than one point,

then f(z) is not one-to-one.

The reason f(x) would not be one-to-one is that the graph would contain

two points that have the same second coordinate — for example, (2,3) and

(4,3). That would mean that f(2) and f(4) both equal 3, and one-to-one

functions can’t assign two different objects in the domain to the same object

of the target.

If every horizontal line in JR2 intersects the graph of a function at most

once, then the function is one-to-one.

Examples. Below is the graph of f : JR —, R where f(z) = z2. There is a

horizontal line that intersects this h in more than one point, so f is not

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
on Wednesday, an aquarium at a pet store contained 230 pink fish, 310 blue fish, and 110 yellow fish. On Thursday, 37 yellow fis
kolezko [41]

add up the total amount of fish there are all together at the initial date that would be 650 now add up 37 and 48 which is 85, now subtract that from 650 you will get 565 now multiply 5/7 by 650 to get 464 then subtract 464 from 565 to get 101 that's how many fish would need to be sold for there to be 5/7 of the store sold

4 0
3 years ago
Someone help me . what’s the infinite solution or just what it says help please make sure right .
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

yes it is right

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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