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Butoxors [25]
3 years ago
8

Iliana’s gross pay is $2,130 per month. Her deductions total $270. She budgets for $1,000 in fixed expenses and $400 in variable

expenses. How much money will Iliana be able to save?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Alexandra [31]3 years ago
6 0
460, because 2,130 minus all her expenses is $460
Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
4 0
She will be able to save $460
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(PLEASE ANSWER ASAP I JUST NEED TO KNOW IF I GOT THIS ONE CORRECT PLEASE EXPLAIN ALSO)
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Hey there! I'm happy to help!

We have $100.75 to spend.

Each spool costs $3, and we have 24 spools.

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Each glue costs $1 and we have 7 packages of glue.

7×1=7

We add up these expenses.

72+7=79

And we subtract from our total amount.

100.75-79=21.75

So, Joanna has $21.75 left after buying these things.

Have a wonderful day and keep on learning! :D

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2 years ago
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Find the area of the irregular polygon. Round your answer to the nearest tenth if necessary.
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a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
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