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Olenka [21]
3 years ago
6

Find f'(a) f(t)=2t+1/t+3

Mathematics
1 answer:
GaryK [48]3 years ago
3 0
I'm going to rewrite f(t) to make it a little easier to use the power rule:
f(t)=2t+t^{-1}+3

Now just take the derivative using the power rule:
f'(t)=2-t^{-2}

Since they ask for f'(a), we need to replace the t's with a's:
f'(a)=2-a^{-2}
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After grabbing some food from the cafeteria, Ray trips causing his food to go up in the air before hitting the ground. The parab
Dahasolnce [82]

The maximum height of the tray is 1.8 meters and the tray is in the air for 2 seconds

<h3>The maximum height of the tray</h3>

The distorted information (i.e. the function) in the question is:

h(t) = -0.2t^2 + 0.4t + 1.6

Differentiate the function

h'(t) = -0.4t + 0.4

Set to 0

-0.4t + 0.4 = 0

Subtract 0.4 from both sides

-0.4t = -0.4

Divide by -0.4

t = 1

Substitute t = 1 in h(t) = -0.2t^2 + 0.4t + 1.6

h(1) = -0.2(1)^2 + 0.4(1) + 1.6

Evaluate

h(1) = 1.8

Hence, the maximum height of the tray is 1.8 meters

<h3>Time spent in the air</h3>

In (a), we have:

t = 1

This represents the time to reach the maximum height.

The time spent in the air is:

T = 2t

This gives

T = 2 * 1

T = 2

Hence, the tray is in the air for 2 seconds

Read more about quadratic functions at:

brainly.com/question/11535666

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
Can't​ really find the answer. Any help?
prisoha [69]

a) you need to convert one of the prices so both of them are in the same units and you can compare them.

im going to convert the Japanese Yen into Euros as the numbers will be smaller but you can also do it the other way.

£1 = 188 japanese yen

?? = 39856 japanese yen

divide 39856 by 188 to get £212

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to £212

then convert this into euros.

£1 = €1.41

£212 = ???

calculate 212 × 1.41 which gives you €298.92

this means 39856 Japanese Yen is equal to €298.92

the phone in Spain costs €352.50

this shows that the phone in Spain is more expensive than the one in Japan.

therefore, the mobile phone in Japan is cheaper.

b) from Part A, we know that the phone in Japan is 39856 Japanese Yen, which is equal to £212.

so now we need to convert €352.50 into Pounds (£) to compare the prices.

£1 = €1.41

?? = €352.50

divide 352.50 by 1.41 to get £250.

this means the phone in Spain costs £250 as €352.50 is equal to £250.

now we know the phone in Japan is £212 (in pounds) whereas the phone in Spain is £250 (in pounds).

we need to calculate the difference by doing £250 - £212 which equals £38

therefore, the phone in Japan is cheaper than the phone in Spain by £38

7 0
4 years ago
I may sound dumb... But what is the Prime Factorization of 68?? Please if I get this right I get 20 pts!!!
Illusion [34]
68
2 * 34
2 * 2 * 17 or 2^2 * 17 <===
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Draw a model to represent the product 41×16
svlad2 [7]
41×16 is 656 because 1×6 is 6. 6×4 is 24. 1×1 is 1. 1×4 is 4. The numbers left are 246 ( 1×6 + 6×4 ), and 41 ( 1×1 + 1×4 ). All together, the answer is 656. Enjoy! :)
7 0
4 years ago
What is 4 percent of 320
aleksley [76]

Answer:

Alright well  simplify the expression

which gives u 12.8 Hope this help's Have a nice day :)

Step-by-step explanation:

If u want i can explain with detail

8 0
4 years ago
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