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zlopas [31]
3 years ago
5

Which equation demonstrates the additive identity property?

Mathematics
1 answer:
nordsb [41]3 years ago
4 0
Sorry i didn’t get that
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Selina is playing a game that uses the spinner below.
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

A) 12.5%

B) 50%

C) 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

For A, 7 is one of the 8 possibilities (1/8). 1/8 of 100 is 12.5, so your chance of spinning a 7 is 12.5%

For B, even numbers are 4/8 or 1/2 of your options. 1/2 of 100 is 50, so your chance of spinning an even number is 50%

For C, there are 4 out of 8 numbers that are prime (2,3,5, & 7).

4/8 or 1/2 of 100 is 50, so your chance of spinning a prime number is 50%

hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
Need help with number 4 and number 5
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

4. D

5. A

Step-by-step explanation:

For #4, I first divided 15 by 4 and saw what the greatest whole number it was divisiable by. Then I wrote the remain as a fraction

For #5, I first multiplied by 4*6 and then add 5 to that answer

7 0
3 years ago
What is the domain of the function shown
Sedaia [141]
It would be choice b.
The domain is the range of x values which in this case is from -5 to 3.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Maria makes beaded necklaces. She charges a rate of $0.75 per inch in length plus $0.25 per bead as shown in the expression, whe
sergiy2304 [10]
16x+60y
16(.75)+60(.25)
12+15=27
maria would charge $27 for this necklace
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the expansion of cos x about the point x=0
ycow [4]

Answer:

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

Step-by-step explanation:

We use Taylor series expansion to answer this question.

We have to find the expansion of cos x at x = 0

f(x) = cos x, f'(x) = -sin x, f''(x) = -cos x, f'''(x) = sin x, f''''(x) = cos x

Now we evaluate them at x = 0.

f(0) = 1, f'(0) = 0, f''(0) = -1, f'''(0) = 0, f''''(0) = 1

Now, by Taylor series expansion we have

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)(x-a)^2}{2!} + \frac{f'''(a)(x-a)^3}{3!} + \frac{f''''(a)(x-a)^4}{4!} + ...

Putting a = 0 and all the values from above in the expansion, we get,

Cos x = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{1!} + ...

8 0
3 years ago
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