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hjlf
3 years ago
9

​culturally, why might females need to meet higher standards of attractiveness to be considered as credible as​ males?

Biology
1 answer:
Elodia [21]3 years ago
3 0
It may have to do with more olden stereotypes, where women were seen to be caretakers of the family, while the male went out to work and earn for them. Many jobs back then were dependent on strength, so as long as men fulfilled their role of earning money (through labor) their looks were seen as little importance. Let me elaborate. If a man could care for his family, he was seen as admirable, or at least acceptable to society. If he couldn't earn, then he was deemed worthless. So a man's honor depended on how his strength was. In this sense, looks didn't really contribute to a man's place in society. Women, on the other hand, were the face of the family. Men would show them off to friends, so if women weren't decently attractive, then it wouldn't be very good for the male. Other than housework, the woman's job is to literally sit still and look pretty; thus the reason behind corsets, bonnets, petticoats and so on. You won't see society asking men to wear such complicated things, because their main job is to work. It would be unsuitable for a blacksmith to be wearing tight suits while hammering, no? I hope this gave you some general insight.
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3 years ago
____ The Rhino and the tick bird. <br> A. Mutualism<br> B. Commensalism<br> C. Parasitism
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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At what point during the year are fish which need a large amount of dissolved
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Answer: A

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
how do you distinguish between the bonds that compose the hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail of a lipid molecule versus the forces tha
Eva8 [605]

The difference between the bonds that compose the hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail of a lipid molecule versus the forces that drive lipid droplet formation (the hydrophobic effect) is hydrophobic hydrogen tail of a lipid molecule is the non water loving lipid whereas hydrophobic is the effect which is known as non water loving effect.

<h3>What is hydrophilic meant?</h3>

If a molecule is the “water-loving”, it is known as the ‘hydrophile’ (noun) that possesses a hydrophilic nature. In the contrast, if a molecule doesn’t like water (h2o) i.e. repel the water, it is known as the ‘hydrophobic‘. The terms hydrophilic and the hydrophobic are used to describe the molecules or  the substances based on how they react to the water molecules. The degree or the extent to which a molecule or a surface attracts water is known as the ‘hydrophilicity‘ of that molecule. Some of most common examples of the hydrophilic substances are sugar, salt, starch, and cellulose.

The tail of the phospholipid is the hydrophobic because it is composed of carbon and hydrogen atoms. If a molecule is made up of mostly of carbon and hydrogen atoms, it is a nonpolar or hydrophobic molecule. Carbon and hydrogen have the similar electronegativities, so they share the electrons equally resulting in the nonpolar bond. Because the tail of the phospholipid is the nonpolar, it does not interact with the water, whereas, Hydrophobic effect is just a tendency of non-polar molecules to come together so that they can avoid the water from their surface area as much as they can.

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4 0
1 year ago
A woman and a man are both heterozygous for a recessive allele for a rare genetic disease. If they have one child, what is the p
makkiz [27]

Answer:

  • If they have one child, the probability that he or she will be affected is 1/4.
  • If they have two children, the probability that at least one of them will be affected is 7/16.

Explanation:

A cross between two heterozygous Aa individuals will produce the followinf offspring: 1/4 AA, 2/4 Aa and 1/4 aa.

Since the disease is recessive, 1/4 of the offspring will have the <em>aa </em>genotype and 3/4 of the offspring will be unaffected.

Every time they have children new gametes were generated <u>independently</u>.

The probability of having <u>no</u> affected children both times is, according to rules of probability for independent events, 3/4 × 3/4 = 9/16 (it's the probability of having a healthy child the first time multiplied by the probability of having a healthy child the second time).

The probability of having at least one affected child is 1 - probability of no affected children = 1 - 9/16 = 7/16.

8 0
3 years ago
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