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weqwewe [10]
3 years ago
13

F(x)=tan(x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
AleksAgata [21]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
A city hosted a music festival that included three concerts. According to the sales database, 28% of the audience attended the f
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

P(X\cap Y\cap Z)=0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Percentage of audience in first concert P(X)=0.28

Percentage of audience in second concert P(Y)=0.42

Percentage of audience in third concert P(Z)=0.30

Audience Percentage at at-least one concert P(X \cup Y \cup Z)=0.80

Percentage of audience at first & second concert P(X \cap Y)=0.10

Percentage of audience in first & third concert P(X \cap Z)=0.08

Percentage of audience in second & third concert P(Y\cap Z)=0.07

 

Generally the equation for probability of attending all concerts P(X\cap Y\cap Z)is mathematically given by

P(X \cup Y \cup Z)=P(X)+P(Y)+P(Z)-P(X \cap Y)-P(X \cap Z)-P(Y\cap Z)+P(X\cap Y\cap Z)

P(X\cap Y\cap Z)=P(X \cup Y \cup Z)-P(X)-P(Y)-P(Z)+P(X \cap Y)+P(X \cap Z)+P(Y\cap Z)

P(X\cap Y\cap Z)=0.80-0.28-0.42-0.30+0.10+0.80+0.70

P(X\cap Y\cap Z)=0.05

Therefore the probability that a randomly selected audient attended all the concerts

P(X\cap Y\cap Z)=0.05

8 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x²-16x+60

=x²-6x-10x+60

=x(x-6)-10(x-6)

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so dimensions are x-6 and x-10.

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The answer to this is C
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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