Question

An ancient philosopher once said: "Man is the measure of all things." The statement points to the idea that man is at the center of everything. Given what you've learned about Greek and Hebrew religious views, which of the two cultures would have been more likely to share this view? Why? Give examples from each culture. Note: if necessary, refer back to the lesson "Ancient Greek Worldview: Religion."

Answer 1

This phrase is attributed to Protagoras, a pre-Socratic Greek philosopher. Although the phase is open to interpretation, one of its possible meanings is the fact that humans are at the center of all existence. Moreover, human perception is the standard of objectivity by which everything else is measured. Therefore, this phrase implies that there is no "force" or "being" outside of humans that can provide us with answers to the questions of existence.

This view is closer to that of Greek religion than to that of Hebrew religion, Judaism. Judaism believes in an objetive truth and objective moral rules, contained in the Torah. Moreover, Jews believe that there is one single God, which is omnipotent and all-knowing, and therefore truth emanates from him and not from men.

On the other hand, Greek religion contains many different gods, all of which are imperfect. This suggests that the behaviour or "teachings" of the gods cannot provide us with an objective truth. Humans need to create their own moral codes and their own assumptions about the world in order to establish their societies. Moreover, gods participate very little in human life and when they do they often create chaos or are defeated, suggesting that gods are fallible and cannot control the whole world. These assumptions mean that Greeks believe humans are significantly autonomous and independent from gods, allowing them to believe that they are at the center of all knowledge and experience.