Answer:
C. role relativism
Explanation:
In this relativism the moral fits to the goals of the company so its adjusted to gain the goals set inside the firm regardless personal views.
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Answer:
Insurance companies manages risk by balancing the low-risk drivers and the high-risk drivers. Insurance would charge higher rates for high risk drivers.
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Explanation:
Insurance companies manages risk by sorting out the people who have a lower chance of risking a crash, with people who have a higher chance of risking a crash. They do this by charging low rates to the people that have a lower chance of causing a risk. They charge them low because they are trustworthy, and don't need to rack up a lot of money quick if they ever get into a crash. Remember, insurance makes people pay monthly so they could use that money in a accident.
But, this is different for people with higher risk. People that have a high risk of getting into an accident would be charged with a higher rate than people with lower risk. Insurance companies charge them with higher rates because since higher risk drivers get are more likely to get into an accident, insurance companies want to make sure that they can get the money for the accident as soon as possible. Insurance companies are the ones that pay for the accident, and that's why most places require you to have insurance while you drive.
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Answer: $36 per machine hour
Explanation:
Assuming Jackson Inc. applied overhead based on machine hours, the firm's predetermined overhead rate for 2019 would be calculated by dividing the budgeted factory overhead by the budgeted machine hours. This will be:
= $1,530,000 / 42,500
= $36 per machine hour
Answer:
P=24.92 per quarter
Explanation:
this problem can be solved applying the concept of annuity, keep in mind that an annuity is a formula which allows you to calculate the future value of future payments affected by an interest rate.by definition the future value of an annuity is given by:
where 
is the future value of the annuity, 
is the interest rate for every period payment, n is the number of payments, and P is the regular amount paid. so applying to this particular problem, we have:
we will asume that deposits are made as interest is compounded it is quarterly thats why we multiply 60 and 4 and also we divide 12% into 4, so:
solving P
P=24.92
Answer:
2.96% will be effective rate of the investment
Explanation:
First year:
1,000 x 1 + 10%) = 1,100
<em><u>Second year: </u></em>
1,100 + 3,000 = 4,100 invesmtent balance
4,100 x (1 - 5%) = 3,895
<em><u>Third year:</u></em>
3,895 + 2,000 = 5,895
5,895 x (1 + 2%) = 6012.9
<em><u>Fourth year:</u></em>
6012.9 + 500 = 6512.9
6,512.9 x (1+ 8%) = 7033.932
We calcualte rate that is equivalent with the following cash flow:
We solve using excel goal seek
0.029646151
