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3 years ago

Depreciation is a _____, a cost that cannot be affected by any future action.

2 answers:

7 0

Depreciation is a sunk cost. It is the value lost on an asset after consumption. In accounting, depreciation cost qualifies as a sunk cost because it is already lost and cannot be recovered. For that reason, it is correct to ignore depreciation cost when determining the future course of a business.

Allisa [31]3 years ago

6 0

Correct Answer is B, Sunk Cost.

Depreciation is a Sunk Cost. A cost that cannot be affected by any future action.

Depreciation is basically a cost of an asset that reduces over time.

Sunk Cost is the cost that has already acquired and cannot be pulled through.

So Depreciation is a sunk cost. A cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered. All assets depreciate over time.

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Your portfolio is invested 30 percent each in Stocks A and C, and 40 percent in Stock B. What is the standard deviation of your

Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

portfolio's standard deviation = 6.18%

Explanation:

we must first determine the expected returns for each stock:

stock A = (0.15 x 31%) + (0.6 x 16%) + (0.2 x -3%) + (0.05 x -11%) = 13.1%

stock B = (0.15 x 41%) + (0.6 x 12%) + (0.2 x -6%) + (0.05 x -16%) = 11.35%

stock C = (0.15 x 21%) + (0.6 x 10%) + (0.2 x -4%) + (0.05 x -8%) = 7.95%

then we must determine the variance of each stock's return:

stock A = {[0.15 x (31 - 13.1)²] + [0.6 x (16 - 13.1)²] + [0.2 x (-3- 13.1)²] + [0.05 x (-11 - 13.1)²]} / 4 = (48.0615 + 5.046 + 51.842 + 29.0405) / 4 = 33.4975

stock B = {[0.15 x (41 - 11.35)²] + [0.6 x (12 - 11.35)²] + [0.2 x (-6- 11.35)²] + [0.05 x (-16 - 11.35)²]} / 4 = (131.868375 + 0.2535 + 60.2045 + 37.401125) / 4 = 57.4219

stock C = {[0.15 x (21 - 7.95)²] + [0.6 x (10 - 7.95)²] + [0.2 x (-4- 7.95)²] + [0.05 x (-8 - 7.95)²]} / 4 = (25.545375 + 2.5215 + 28.5605 + 12.720125) / 4 = 17.3369

portfolio's variance = (0.3 x 33.4975) + (0.4 x 57.4219) + (0.3 x 17.3369) = 38.21908

portfolio's standard deviation = √38.21908 = 6.18%

5 0

2 years ago

Under U.S. GAAP, if the carrying value of a fixed asset was $50,000, the undiscounted expected future cash flows was $55,000, th

ira [324]

Answer:

Explanation:

According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.

Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000

Market Value = $53,000

Discounted Value = $51,000

There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The preferred debt-to-income ratio is usually: A. 28 percent B. 36 percent C. 40 percent D. 50 percent

krek1111 [17]

the preferred debt to income ratio is usually B 36%

4 0

2 years ago

The Red Bud Co. pays a constant dividend of $1.80 a share. The company announced today that it will continue to do this for anot

Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

One share of this stock worth today if the required rate of return is 7.4 percent is $ 3.24

Explanation:

According to the details the dividend for the next 2 years = $1.80 a share and the required return is=7.40%.

Hence to calculate current price of stock we have to use the following formula:

current price= present value of future cash flows

current price=$1.80/1.074 + $1.80/1.074∧2

current price= $ 3.24

current price of stock is $ 3.24

8 0

3 years ago

James employs an apprentice in his guitar store who gets firsthand knowledge of craftsmanship and the process involved in becomi

MrRa [10]

Answer: Having lower opportunity costs.

Explanation: Opportunity cost can be defined as the cost of next best alternative foregone. In this case, James is saving his money by taking work of a professional from a new recruit also he gets the opportunity to procure high quality materials which he was earlier not able to. Thus, he is saving a major portion of income because of a less costly alternative available.

3 0

3 years ago