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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
3 years ago
11

The management of Blue Ocean Company estimates that 50,000 machine-hours will be required to support the production planned for

the year. It also estimates $300,000 of total fixed manufacturing overhead cost for the coming year and $4 of variable manufacturing overhead cost per machine-hour. What is the predetermined overhead rate? $10.00 per machine-hour $12.50 per machine-hour $8.00 per machine-hour $6.00 per machine-hour
Business
1 answer:
zhuklara [117]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$6.00 per machine-hour

Explanation:

Total estimated manufacturing overhead = $300,000

Estimated machine hours = 50,000 hours

Predetermined overhead rate = Total estimated manufacturing overhead /  Estimated machine hours

Predetermined overhead rate = $300,000 / 50,000 machine hours

Predetermined overhead rate = $6 per machine hour

So, The correct asnwer is $6.00 per machine-hour.

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Spruce Company uses a job costing system. Spruce Company's schedule of cost of goods manufactured showed the following amounts f
julsineya [31]

Answer:

The amount of allocated manufacturing overhead costs for August is $47,150

Explanation:

For computing the allocated manufacturing overhead costs, first we have to compute the direct labor hours which is shown below:

=  Direct labor cost ÷ per hour rate

= $73,800 ÷ $36

= 2,050 hours

Now the allocated manufacturing overhead costs equals  to

= Direct labor hours × Manufacturing overhead rate

= 2,050 hours × $23

= $47,150

5 0
3 years ago
Golden Eye Co., a hi-tech satellite company, has asked you to value the company for possible cross-listing in the U.S. The compa
EastWind [94]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm

Particulars                            Years

                          1                         2                   3

EBIT                  540                   680                750

<u>Tax at 36%    (0.36*540)       (0.36*680)        (0.36*750)    </u>

Less:               345.6                  435.2            480

Net Capital -

Spending            150                   170                 190

<u>Change in NWC    70                    75                  80      </u>

Less:                    125.6              190.2                210

The terminal value at the end of T =(3  years) is:

= \dfrac{Free \ cash \ flow}{unlevered \ cost - expected \ growth  \ rate}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1643-0.04}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1243}

= 2011.26

Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:

Years                  Free Cash Flow        PVIF           PV

1                          125.6                        0.6589        107.88

2                         190.2                        0.7377         140.31

3                          210                           0.6336       133.06

<u>Terminal Value  2011.26                    0.6336        1294.33     </u>

<u>Value of the firm   ⇒                                               $1655.58</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Ms. Pay, who has a 40.8 percent marginal tax rate on interest income (37 percent income tax 3.8 percent Medicare contribution ta
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

After tax cash flow    $44,281.60

After tax cash flow   ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow   $8856.32

Explanation:

In the first case when the interest income of $74,800 ,the after-tax cash flow would be taxed as follows"

before tax cash flow   $74,800.00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

If the entire interest income is re-invested after tax cash flow is computed thus:

before tax cash flow   $0

tax at 40.8%*$74,800 ($30,518.40)

After tax cash flow      ($30,518.40)

If the entire interest income represents the original  issue discount,which is the difference between the face value and the issue price,after tax cash  flow is computed thus:

The OID is taxable as if it accrues over the duration of the investment(bonds),hence a portion of the OID would be assessed to tax each year (assume the duration of investment is 5 years)

Annual portion of OID=$74,800/5

before tax cash flow    $14,960 .00

tax at 40.8%*$74,800  ($6103.68 )

After tax cash flow         $8856.32

After tax cash flow      $44,281.60  

3 0
3 years ago
What is the primary purpose of a mission statement?
natka813 [3]
Its c good luck and hope that helps 
3 0
3 years ago
Wolery Inc. has provided the following data concerning one of the products in its standard cost system. Inputs Standard Quantity
nadezda [96]

Answer: The labor efficiency variance for the month is closest to: $2576

Explanation:

Given:

Actual output 8,800 units

Actual direct labor-hours 1,610 hours

Actual direct labor rate $ 23.30 per hour

The labor efficiency variance for the month is computed as :

The labor rate variance = Actual hours×(Actual rate - Standard rate)

=1610 ×($23.30-$21.70)

=$2576

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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