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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
8

The price of oil in the United States has been very volatile over the last 50​ years, with the real price of oil showing a few d

ramatic swings. When did these swings​ occur, and what can explain​ them? The first dramatic swing happened in the 1970s when there was a sharp ▼ drop rise in the real price of oil caused by ▼ a large financial crisis the formation of OPEC increased demand from emerging economies . The second swing happened in the 2000s when there was a sharp ▼ rise drop in the real price of oil caused by ▼ increased demand from emerging economies a large financial crisis the formation of OPEC . The most recent swing happened in 2008 when there was a sharp ▼ rise drop in the real price of oil caused by
Business
1 answer:
Snowcat [4.5K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The first dramatic swing happened in the 1970s when there was a sharp <em><u>rise</u></em> in the real price of oil caused by the <em><u>formation of OPEC.</u></em>

In 1973, the World saw it's first oil spike when members of the Organization of Oil Exporting Countries (OPEC) being mostly Muslims, decided to punish the Western World for their perceived support of the Israelis in the Yom Kippur War. They placed an embargo on the sale of oil to the West and because they controlled 56% of the then World supply, this was enough to force the price of oil up due to the reduction in demand.

<em />

The second swing happened in the 2000s when there was a sharp <em><u>rise</u></em><u> </u>in the real price of oil caused by <em><u>increased demand from emerging economies.</u></em>

From the early 2000s to 2008, the price of oil kept rising steadily till it reached around $147.30 in July 2008. This rise in prices was due to increased demand from newly industrialized and emerging nations like China that needed the oil to maintain their rapid growth.

<u><em /></u>

The most recent swing happened in 2008 when there was a sharp <em><u>drop</u></em><em> </em>in the real price of oil caused by<em> </em><em><u>a large financial crisis.</u></em><em> </em>

By December 2008, the price of oil had fallen to $32 and this was down to the global recession that was ravaging the World known as the Great Recession. As the world saw economic output fall, demand for oil decreased sharply thereby forcing the price of oil to fall dramatically.

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When p = $5, the quantity demanded of a good is 30 units, and the quantity supplied of the good is 50 units. For every $1 decrea
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer: Equilibrium price is $3 and equilibrium quantity is 40 units.

Explanation:

Demand equation is given by,

Qd= a-bP When P=$5, Qd=30 30 = a – 5b Change in Quantity demanded =  Change in a – (b Change in P) 5 = 0 – b(-1) b=5 So, a = 55

Therefore the demand equation is given by, Qd= 55 – 5P

Supply equation is given by

Qs= c + dP When P=$5, Qs = 50 50 = c + 5d Change in Quantity supplied = Change in c + d(Change in P) -5 = 0 + d(-1) d=5 So, c=25

Therefore, the supply equation is given by,  

Qs= 25 + 5P

Equilibrium is given by

Qd=Qs 55 – 5P= 25 + 5P 30=10P P=$3 And  Equilibrium quantity is, Q= 55 – 5(3) = 55 – 15 = 40 units.

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National Bank quotes the following for the British pound and the New Zealand dollar: Quoted Bid Price Quoted Ask Price Value of
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

$15.43

Explanation:

Following actions are required for triangular arbitrage:

Available: $ 10,000

Buy sterling pound @ 1 $ = 1.62 pounds and receive pounds 6172.84 upon conversion.

Now, sell these pounds and purchase NZ $ at the rate :

1 pound = NZ $ 2.95 and receive NZ$ 18209.87

Now, reconvert the above proceeds into US $ at the rate

1 NZ $ = $0.55 i.e sell NZ $ at this rate and receive US $ 10,015.4285

Hence profit from implementing triangular arbitrage is $10,015.43 - $10,000

= $15.43

Arbitrage refers to the prospect of earning a profit by utilizing the mispricing in two different financial markets. An arbitrageur never uses his own funds and always borrows.

Arbitrage works only in the scenario wherein the interest rate purchase parity (IRPT) does not hold good.

The strategy of arbitrage is best explained as "Buy at low price and sell at a high price".

 

7 0
3 years ago
According to classical economics, a decrease in aggregate demand causes the price level to _____________ in the long run. On the
shtirl [24]

Answer: Decrease, Increase, Price flexibility.

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In a flexible market the forces of demand and supply determines the prices of commodities in the market.

As the demand Falls the prices also fall as the demand rises the prices of commodities also rises.

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The _______________ Act of 1764 was an attempt to increase taxes by lowering the rate and increasing consumption.
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The answer is the sugar act.
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