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RoseWind [281]
4 years ago
5

The U.S. and European countries do not need trade agreements because they have always freely traded without duties or quotas. tr

ue or false
Business
1 answer:
Mrrafil [7]4 years ago
4 0
I think the answer is false!
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To protect certain fledgling industries, the government of country Z banned imports of the types of products those industries we
KIM [24]

Answer;

A

Explanation:

two types of industries are made mention of in this question.

1)Local Fledgling Industries

2)Export Dependent Industries,who are being forced to buy products from local industries now.

Since the Government has placed a ban on the importation of the products that are being made by the local fledgling industries. The implication of this is that:

1. Buyers of those import products will experience a rise in the Cost of those products as the competition faced by the Fledging industries decreases.

2. Competing becomes difficult for Export dependent industries. This is because of inflation. They now have to buy the same product at an inflated cost, thereby reducing profits.

7 0
3 years ago
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Definition:_________ This is the process of reducing or eliminating government regulations on an industry, allowing for more lai
baherus [9]

Answer:

Deregulation

Explanation:

<em>Deregulation when the government power is reduced or eliminated from a particular industry in order to make business easier and less restrictive.</em>

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

3 0
4 years ago
What is a bank??????????
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

A Bank is a financial institution that accepts deposits from public and creates a demand deposit while simultaneously makeing loans.

8 0
3 years ago
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The Spokes Bikes makes 18 bicycle models in more than 2 million combinations, with each combination designed to fit the needs of
creativ13 [48]
C.) mass customization
7 0
3 years ago
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The owner of a single-family house in which he lives wants to sell. If he does not use discriminatory language in advertising, h
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

The answer is: No, he can't discriminate.

Explanation:

The Civil Rights Act of 1866 defined citizenship without distinction of race or color, and stated that all citizens are equally protected by the law.

So the owner of the house (as well as everyone else in this country) is prohibited by law to discriminate potential buyers on the basis of race.

4 0
3 years ago
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