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Naddika [18.5K]
3 years ago
10

Which statement concerning lower-of-cost-or-net-realizable-value (LCNRV) is incorrect? LCNRV is an example of a company choosing

the accounting method that will be least likely to overstate assets and income. The LCNRV basis is justified because of a decline in the selling price of the inventory item. LCNRV is applied after one of the cost flow assumptions has been applied. Under the LCNRV basis, market does not apply because assets are always recorded and maintained at cost.
Business
1 answer:
liberstina [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The LCNRV basis is justified because of a decline in the selling price of the inventory item

Explanation:

The accounting standard for Inventory under IFRS IAS 2 requires that inventory be recognized at cost which includes all the cost incurred to bring the item of inventory to a state or place where the item of inventory becomes available for sale.

These costs includes cost of purchase, freight, Insurance cost during transit etc.  

Subsequently, inventory is to be carried at the lower of cost or net realizable value.

This is justified where there is a decline in the selling price of inventory as it ensures that the amount stated in the books is fairly representative of the amount that may be realized from the sale of the inventory items.

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The Brookstone Company produces 9 volt batteries and AAA batteries. The Brookstone Company uses a plantwide rate to apply overhe
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

Over applied Overhead =$ 42,500

Explanation:

Actual Overhead $325,000

Estimated Overhead $350,000

Over applied overhead is when the Predetermined overhead is more than the actual overhead . Under applied overhead is when the Predetermined overhead is less than the actual overhead .

Predetermined Overhead rate= Overhead / total direct labor hours

                              = 350,000/ 500,000 (100)= 70%

Applied Overhead = Predetermined Overhead rate( actual direct labor hours)

                               = 70 % (525,000) = $367,500

Applied Overhead $367,500

Less Actual Overhead $325,000

Over applied Overhead =$ 42,500

5 0
3 years ago
For each of the following events, explain the short-run and long-run effects on output and the price level, assuming open econom
Westkost [7]

Answer:

High prices of products as well as increases poverty.  

Explanation:

The stock market declines sharply, reducing consumers’ wealth that leads to high prices of products as well as increases poverty.  The federal government increases spending on national defense that decreases the foreign reserves and money for other fields of the country. A technological improvement raises productivity which increases the economy of the country as well as standard of living. A recession overseas causes foreigners to buy fewer U.S. goods that leads to lower income of the country and purchasing power of the country. Due to this, there is less money for other fields and institutions.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The CEO of Ridgeway, Inc., realizes that the company’s survival depends on developing and acquiringknowledge. Which of the follo
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

The correct answer is B

Explanation:

When the company want that their employees, need to have the knowledge and develop their knowledge as well, they need to arrange or conduct the program of the training as well as programs of the recruiting.

As the CEO, realizes and states that the firm or the business survival grounded on the acquiring as well as the developing the knowledge. So, in order to follow what the CEO said, one must go through the proper training as well as the programs of the recruiting.

7 0
3 years ago
You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They’ve offered you two different salary arrangement
rodikova [14]

Answer:

The correct answer for 1st option is $158,206.95 and for 2nd option is $157,733.11.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

1st option

Payment ( PMT ) = $85,000

Interest rate (I) = 7%

Time (N) = 2 years

So, the effective rate of interest can be calculated as :

R = ((\frac{1+\frac{7}{100} }{12})^{12} -1)

R = 7.2290%

Present value can be calculated by using following formula:

P = PMT x (((1-(1 + r) ^- n)) / i)

Hence, present value of 1st option can be calculated as:

PV = 85000×((1-(1 + 7.229%) ^- 2) / 7%)

PV = $158,206.95

Now, present value of 2nd option can be calculated as:

Payment = $74,000

Bonus = $20,000

So, PV = 74000×((1-(1 + 7.229%) ^- 2) / 7%)

PV = 137,733.11

Bonus (add) = $20,000

Total PV = $157,733.11

Hence, the present value for 1st option is $158,206.95 and for 2nd option is $157,733.11.

4 0
4 years ago
If a $500 billion increase in investment spending increases income by $500 billion in the first round of the multiplier process
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

D. $5,000 billion

Explanation:

quizlet

5 0
3 years ago
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