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vlada-n [284]
3 years ago
9

A manufacturing company applies factory overhead based on direct labor hours. at the beginning of the year, it estimated that fa

ctory overhead costs would be $360,000 and direct labor hours would be 45,000. actual factory overhead costs incurred were $377,200, and actual direct labor hours were 47,000. what is the amount of overapplied or underapplied manufacturing overhead at the end of the year?
Business
1 answer:
slamgirl [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The amount of underapplied manufacturing overhead at the end of the year is $1200.

Explanation:

Total estimated $360,000/est

direct labour hours 45000 = $8x (Actual Dl hours) 47000

                                             = $376,000

Actual Overhead worked = $377,200 - $376,000

                                           = $1200 underapplied

Therefore, The amount of underapplied manufacturing overhead at the end of the year is $1200.

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Which statement below best describes the accounting equation? Multiple Choice The change in retained earnings equals net income
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

The correct answer is Resources of the company equal creditors' and owners' claims to those resources.

Explanation:

It can be used to determine that the income or income of the consumer is exactly equal to the expense (purchase) of goods, for the determined period of consumption. In other words, by adding the value spent on the acquisition of goods "x" and goods "y". To have such values it is enough to multiply the number of possible units to acquire - in each of the points - by their respective price and then add them; This can be done at any point in the price line.

4 0
3 years ago
Asset A and B have expected returns of 5% and 3% per year respectively. Their annual volatilities are both 20% and the correlati
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

1. Weight of A=0.5, Weight of B= 0.5

2. Asset A has the highest shape ratio. The weight of A and B in the optimal risky portfolio that has the highest shape ratio is:

Weight of A= 0.105, Weight of B= 0.895

Explanation:

Expected return of Asset A= 5%Expected return of Asset A= 5%

Expected return of Asset B= 3%

Annual volatilities of Asset A= 20%

Annual votalities of Asset B= 20%

1. Correlation coefficient = 30% = 0.3 < 1

Risk Free Rate = 1% =0.01

1. Weight of A and B in portfolio with minimal risk is:

Weight of A= β^2B - Cov (XAXB) /β^2A + β^2B - 2Cov (XAXB)

Therefore,

CovXAXB = PAB (Volatility of A) (Volatility of B)

= 0.3 × 0.2 × 0.2

= 0.012

Hence,

Weight of A= (0.2)^2 - 0.012 / (0.2)^2 + (0.2)^2 - 2(0.012)

Weight of A= 0.04 - 0.012 / 0.04 + 0.04 - 0.024

= 0.028/ 0.08 - 0.024

= 0.028/ 0.056

=0.5

Weight of A = 0.5

Weight of B= 1 - Weight of A

Weight of B= 1 - 0.5

Weight of B= 0.5

2. Shape ratio of A= RA - Rf / β

= 0.05 - 0.01 / 2

= 0.04/2

= 0.02 =20%

Shape ratio of B= RB - Rf / β

= 0.03 - 0.01/ 2

0.02 / 2

=0.01 = 10%

So, Asset A has the highest shape ratio

Cov (XAXB) = PAB (Volatility of A) (Volatility of B)

= 0.03 × 0.2 × 0.1

= 0.006

Weight of A= β^2B - Cov (XAXB) /β^2A + β^2B - 2Cov (XAXB)

Weight of A = (0.1)^2 - 0.006 / (0.2)^2 + (0.1)^2 - 2(0.006)

= 0.01 - 0.006 / 0.04 +0.01 - 0.012

= 0.004/ 0.05 - 0.012

= 0.004/ 0.038

= 0.105

Weight of A = 0.105

Weight of B= 1 - 0.105

Weight of B= 0.895

3 0
3 years ago
One of the more important business applications of demand elasticity is the relationship between price and total revenue. For ea
user100 [1]

Answer:

Part 1.  inelastic.

Part 2. inelastic.

Part 3. inelastic.

Explanation:

When the coefficient of elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic, when it is equal to 1, demand is unitary elastic, when it is greater than 1, demand is elastic, and when it is equal to zero demand is perfectly inelastic.

Part 1

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

  Where : dQ = Change in Quantity

               dP = Change in Price

                 P = Initial or Old price

                 Q = Initial of Old Quantity

               dQ = $35,000 - $40,000 = - $5,000

                dP = $10 - $8 = $2

                  P = $8  

                  Q = $40,000  

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$5,000/$2) * $8/ $40,000

                       = 2,500 * 1/5000 = -0.5

Disregard the minus sign,  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

Part 2

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

                dQ = $1,800 - $2,000 = - $200

                dP = $50 - $40  = $10

                  P = $40

                  Q = $2,000  

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$200/$10) * $40/ $2,000

                       = 20 * 0.02 = -0.4

Disregard the minus sign,  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

Part 3

Price Elasticity of demand =  (dQ/dP) x P/Q

                dQ = $120 - $150 = - $30

                dP = $5 - $4  = $1

                  P = $4

                  Q = $150

Price Elasticity of demand = (-$30/$1) * $4/ $150

                       = 30 * 2/75 = - 0.8

Disregard the minus sign  since elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is inelastic.

5 0
3 years ago
You currently own 6 percent of the 2 million outstanding shares of Webster Mills. The company has just announced a rights offeri
natta225 [31]

Answer:

The new ownership position is A. 5.08

Explanation:

Current holding= 6%

current no. of shares= 2*6%=.12

new no. of shares issued =18/50=.36

total no. of shares become =2+.36=2.36 million

my holding in no. =.12 million

my holdinng in %=.12/2.36=.0508

or, 5.08%

8 0
3 years ago
If the demand for a good rises by more than the supply of the good falls, then the good’s equilibrium price will __________ and
mina [271]

Answer:

Rises

Rises

Explanation:

If the demand for a good rises more than the fall in supply, both equilibrium price and quantity would increase.

Refer to the attached image for a graphical explanation.

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
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