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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
3 years ago
12

GMC purchased a $180,000 milling machine, which will be used for 5 years. The machine is expected to save the company $30,000 du

ring the first year of operation. Then, the annual savings is expected to DECREASE by 3% per year over the previous year due to additional cost of maintenance. The machine is to be operated 5,000 hours per year (on average) and the machine is expected to have NO salvage value at the end of the 5-year project. Interest is 15% compounded annually. Determine the present worth, PW (15%), of all the savings in this problem. (Round your answer to the nearest dollar. Do not enter the $ symbol or use commas.)
Business
1 answer:
aliina [53]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Year&Cashflow&Present Value\\0&-180,000&-180,000\\1&30,000&26,086.9565\\2&29,100&22,003.7807\\3&28,227&18559.7107\\4&27,380.19&15,654.7125\\5&26,558.7843&13,204.4097\\Net&Value&-84,490.4299\\\end{array}\right]

The first step will be calculate the alue of eachcash saving

mulitply by (1- 0.03) which is the rate at which the flow decrease.

Then we calculate the present value of each cashflow

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

<u />

<u>For example year 4:</u>

\frac{27,380.19}{(1 + 0.15)^{4} } = 15,654.7125

Then we add all the cash saving and compare with the machien cost to calcuale the net present value of the machine

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Airline Accessories has the following current assets: cash, $96 million; receivables, $88 million; inventory, $176 million; and
garri49 [273]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the current ratio and the acid ratio is shown below:

The current ratio is

= Current assets ÷ current liabilities

= ($96 + $88 + $176 + $12) ÷ ($86 + $29)

= $372 ÷ $115

= 3.23 times

And, the quick ratio is

= Quick assets ÷ current liabilities

= ($372 - $176) ÷  ($86 + $29)

= $196 ÷ $115

= 1.70 times

Hence, the current ratio and the acid-test ratio is 3.23 times and 1.70 times respectively

5 0
3 years ago
The current price of the common stock of Internet Enterprises is $100. Over the course of a year, the stock's price will either
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Current value of this newly issued option on Internet Enterprises= $25

Explanation:

Risk free rate for 6 month or period 1= (1000-909.09)/909.09=10%

Risk free rate for 1 year= (1000-826.45)/826.45=21%

Hence, risk free rate for period 2= (1+21%)/(1+10%)-1=10%

Now, Risk free rate factor for period 1 (R1)=1+10%=1.1

Risk Free rate factor for period 2 (R2)=1+10%=1.1

Upward price factor for a period(u)=(1+100%)^(1/2)=1.414

Downward price factor for a period(d)=(1-50%)^(1/2)=0.707

Probability of upward price= (R-d)/(u-d)=(1.1-0.707)/(1.414-0.707)=0.55

Probability of downward price= 1-0.55=0.45

After period 1: Upward price=100*1.414=141.4 with probability 55%

Downward price =100*0.707=70.7 with probability 45%

After period 2:

Upward Price will be =141.4*1.414=200 with probability= 55%*55%=30.25%

Downward price will be=70.7*0.707=50 with probability=45%*45%=20.25%

Mid price will be = 141.4*0.707 or 70.7*1.414=100 with probability =2*45%*55%=49.5%

Now, the highest price the stock can go is $200 with probability 30.25% and it was issued at $100

Hence, expected payoff of the option=30.25%*(200-100)=$30.25

So, current value of the newly issued option= 30.25/(1+21%)=$25

4 0
3 years ago
Tools, equipment, and factories used in the production of goods and services;
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

capital

Explanation:

The capital assets are all those belongnings of the company that help creating revenue.

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January​ 1, 2018, Brazos Company purchased equipment and signed a sixminusyear mortgage note for $ 186 comma 000 at 15​%. The
kifflom [539]

Answer:

The journal entry to record the first installment payment will include a​ debit to interest expense of $27,900, mortgage notes payable of $21,248 and a credit to cash account of $49,148

Explanation:

For recording the first installment payment, we have to compute the interest amount which is given below:

Interest amount = value of Mortgage note × rate × year

                           = $186,000 × 15% × 1 year

                           = $27,900

Since we have to compute the installment for January​ 1, 2019, therefore, we take the one year period

Now, we have to compute the principal amount which equals tp

= Installment amount - interest expense

= $49,148 - $27,900

= $21,248

So, the journal entry would be

Interest expense A/c Dr             $27,900

Mortgage note payable A/c Dr   $21,248

    To Cash                                                       $49,148

(Being payment of the first installment recorded)

7 0
3 years ago
Spending, saving, and investing to have the kind of life you want and financial security can be achieved by
melomori [17]

Answer:

Personal financial planning

Explanation:

If you plan out how you will spend, save, and invest your money, you can get to many places in live.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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