Answer:u are a wierdo mister
Explanation:u dont need brainly
JK
Answer:
$358,150
Explanation:
Cost of goods manufactured is calculated in a Schedule of Manufacturing Costs as follows :
Cost of goods manufactured = Beginning Work In Process + Total Manufacturing Costs - Ending Work In Process
where,
Total Manufacturing Costs :
Materials used in product $124,260
Depreciation on plant $69,650
Property taxes on plant $21,750
Labor costs of assembly-line $120,570
Factory supplies used $25,810
Total $362,040
therefore,
Cost of goods manufactured = $13,700 + $362,040 - $17,590 = $358,150
A. Which Firm will have Higher Profits in a Recession Period ?
During a recession period trade and industries are unsuccessful and there is allot of unemployment. During the period supply in the market and level of output in the company are likely to be low. Robotic automated process seems to be relatively cheap under high production output in a firm. Also the cost of maintenance of machinery is quite high which the firm can`t cater for during the period. In this period human workers are more recommended as the cost of production will be accounted for due to small numbers of employees where the cost of wages and salaries is quite low.
B. Which Firm will have a Higher Profit During a Boom?
During a boom the industry experiences a period of economic success as demand in the market is high. Automated robotics process are machines and carry out their work with allot of efficiency. Compared to human beings they are relatively faster and more efficient. This will will help the industry meet its high level of production target. They also reduce the cost of production as their maintenance cost is low under large scale production. Human workers seem expensive during this period because cost of wages and salaries is subject per-head.
The Firm with a Higher Beta.
The automated robotics firm will have a higher beta this is because the output will be high leading to increased supply and sale for better profitability. The robots will also function as an asset to the firm increasing the net worth to the company.
Answer:
Future value (FV) = $57,908
Present value (PV) = $8,860
Number of years (n) = 18 years
Interest rate = ?
FV = PV(1 + r)n
$57,908 = $8,860(1 + r)18
$57,908 = $8,860(1 + r)18
<u>$57,908</u> = (1 + r)18
$8,860
6.535891648 = (1 + r)18
18√6.535891648 = 1 + r
1.10993 - 1 = r
r = 0.10992 = 10.99%
Explanation:
In this case, we will apply the future value of a lump sum (single investment) formula. The present value, future value and number of years are given with the exception of interest rate. Thus, interest rate is made the subject of the formula.
