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4 years ago

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The standard tip in a restaurant is 15% of the bill before tax. Many people in California find the tip by doubling the sales tax

, which is 8.25%. By how many cents does this exceed the standard tip on a bill of 60% before tax?

1 answer:

cricket20 [7]4 years ago

3 0

To answer this you could do a couple things. 1. Actually calculate both tips and then subtract them. Here is the math ( assuming it is $60, not 60% that you mean). a. 0.15 x 60 = $9. b. 0.0825 x 2 x 60=$9.90. c. 9.90-9.00= $0.90 difference.

The other strategy would be to find the difference on the percents and then multiply by $60. a. 8.25%x2=16.5%-15%. Difference of 1.5%. b. 0.015 x $60=$0.90.

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lara [203]

Answers with Explanation.

i. If we raise a number to an exponent of 1, we get the same number.

${10}^{1} = 10$

ii. If we raise 10 to an exponent of 2, it means we multiply 10 by itself two times.

${10}^{2} = 10 \times 10 = 100$

iii. If we raise 10 to an exponent of 3, it means we multiply 10 by itself three times.

${10}^{3} = 10 \times {10}^{2} = 10 \times 100 = 1000$

iv. If we raise 10 to an exponent of 4, it means we multiply 10 by itself four times.

${10}^{4} = 10 \times {10}^{3} = 10 \times 1000 = 10000$

v. If we raise 10 to an exponent of 5, it means we multiply 10 by itself five times.

${10}^{5} = 10 \times {10}^{4} = 10 \times 10000 = 100000$

${10}^{5} = 100000$

vi. Recall that,

${a}^{ - m} = \frac{1}{ {a}^{m} }$
We apply this law of exponents to obtain,

${10}^{ - 2} = \frac{1}{{10}^{2} } = \frac{1}{100}$

vii. We apply
${a}^{ - m} = \frac{1}{ {a}^{m} }$
again to obtain,

${10}^{ - 3} = \frac{1}{ {10}^{3} } = \frac{1}{1000}$

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1. Divide each spice price to the size

Cumin -> 4.80/1.5= 3.2

Ginger -> 3.60/ 0.8= 4.5

Nutmeg -> 6.30/ 1.8= 3.5

Thyme -> 4.50/ 1.25= 3.6

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4 years ago

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3 years ago

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$

Where :

$f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)$

$f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}$

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

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3 years ago

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Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago