Answer:
C. Fall, 30%, Rise
Explanation:
- Price Elasticity of Demand is responsive change in demand, due to change in price.
P.Ed = % change in demand / % change in price.
Given : Price rise by 50% , P.Ed = 0.6
So, % change in demand = P.ed x % change in price
% change in demand = 0.6 (50)
% change in demand = 30%
Law of demand states negative relationship between price & demand, so P.ed is negative. Price rise 50% reduces demand by 30%.
- P.Ed can be : Elastic ( > 1 ), or Inelastic ( < 1 ). If P.Ed is Elastic, price & total revenue are inversely related. If P.Ed is Inelastic, price & total revenue are directly related.
So, Given PEd = 0.6 (i.e < 1 ) : Inelastic Demand implies price & total revenue are directly related related to each other. So, price fall lead to TR fall & price rise lead to TR rise.
Answer:
Kindly refer to the attached file for the tabular solution
Explanation:
Every transaction flows through the balance sheet and most times the stockholders equity.
This table carefully highlights the impact of each entry to the stockholders equity
?
If the date of the appointment has been rescheduled, it's only logical not to show up on the day it was moved. Go to the appointment next week.
A pre-sweetened breakfast cereal would most likely be in the DECLINE stage of the product life cycle.
At the decline stage of a product like cycle, the number of product sold usually drop significantly, because of this, manufacturers usually look for a mean of modifying their product so that the consumers will continue buying it. For instance, a cereal manufacturer may decide to add sugar to his product so that it will continue to be bought by the consumers.<span />
Answer:
C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
Explanation:
given data
State 1 State 2 State 3
Probability 25% 50% 25%
Spot rate $ 2.50 /£ $ 2.00 /£ $ 1.60 /£
P* £ 1,800 £ 2,250 £ 2,812.50
P $4,500 $4,500 $4,500
solution
company holds portfolio in pound. so to get hedge, they will sell that of the same amount.
we get here average value of the portfolio that is
The average value of the portfolio = £ (0.25*1800 + 0.5*2250 + 0.25*2812.5)
The average value of the portfolio = 2278.13
so correct option is C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.