Answer:
$216,65
Explanation:
$210(price for the goods) * 0,03(3% discount) = $6,3(amount of the discount)
$210(price for the goods) - $6,3(amount of the discount) = $203,7(total amount without shipping)
$203,7(total amount without shipping) + $12,95(shipping) = $216,65(total amount)
If purchasing power parity holds, when a country's central bank decreases the money supply, its <u>If purchasing power parity holds, when a country's central bank decreases the money supply, its price level (rises/falls) and its currency (appreciates/depreciates) relative to other currencies in the world. </u>
A theory of exchange rate determination and a means to compare average prices of goods and services between nations is purchasing power parity (PPP).
According to the hypothesis, fluctuations in the spot exchange rate are caused by importers' and exporters' actions, which are prompted by variations in prices across nations.
Alternatively, PPP contends that changes to a nation's current account may have an impact on the value of the currency's exchange rate on the foreign exchange (Forex) market.
In contrast, the interest rate parity theory postulates that fluctuations in the exchange rate are caused by investor actions (whose transactions are reported on the capital account).
The "law of one price" as it pertains to the overall economy is the foundation of PPP theory.
Hence, option A and D is correct.
To learn more about PPP here
brainly.com/question/27463586
#SPJ4
Answer:
$50,100
Explanation:
Given that
Acquired value of a financial asset other than principal market = $50,000
Sale value of the identical instrument in principal market = $50,100
Transaction cost = $200
For reporting the fair value, we have to exclude the transaction cost i.e $200 and consider that cost which is to be received while exchanging i.e $50,100
This sale value would be equal to the fair value i.e $50,100 should be reported as a fair value
That he will forever stay by the position