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3 years ago

What is 4/3 times 9/16

Mathematics

1 answer:

Andrei [34K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

0.75, or 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Divide 4/3 = 1.33333...

The problem becomes 1.33333 * 9/16

2. Divide 9/16 = 0.5625

The problem becomes 1.33333 * 0.5625

3. Multiply 1.33333 * 0.5625 = 0.749998125, rounded up to 0.75.

Hope I helped!

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Helpp me please

kiruha [24]

Answer:

d. RP

Step-by-step explanation:

Point p is not on the line.

Therefore RP is not a possible name for the illustrated line

7 0

2 years ago

Please please help. Marking Brilliant for the correct answer

NISA [10]

Answer:

x = 19

Step-by-step explanation:

(whole secant) x (external part) = (tangent)^2

(x-7+4) * 4 = 8^2

(x-3)*4 = 64

Divide each side by 4

x-3 =16

Add 3 to each side

x-3+3 = 16+3

x = 19

5 0

3 years ago

The measure of one angle is six more than half the measure of another angle. If the angles are complementary, find both measures

Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

The measures of the two angles are 34° and 56°

Step-by-step explanation:

* Lets explain how to solve the problem

- The complementary angles are the angles whose the sum

of their measures is 90°

- The measure of one angle is six more than half the measure

of another angle

- Let the measure of the second angle angle is x

∵ The measure of the 2nd angle is x

∵ The measure of the first angle is 6 more than the half of the

measure of the second angle

∴ The 1st angle is 6 + 1/2 x

∵ The two angles are complementary

∴ The sum of their measures is 90°

∴ x + (6 + 1/2 x) = 90

∴ (x + 1/2 x) + 6 = 90

∴ 3/2 x + 6 = 90

- Subtract 6 from both sides

∴ 3/2 x = 84

- Multiply both sides by

∴ 3x = 168

- Divide both sides by 3

∴ x = 56

∵ x is the measure of the 2nd angle

∴ The measure of the 2nd angle is 56°

∵ The measure of the 1st angle = 6 + 1/2 x

∵ x = 56

∴ The measure of the 1st angle = 6 + 1/2(56) = 34°

* The measures of the two angles are 34° and 56°

4 0

3 years ago

Please help need answers

bogdanovich [222]

see explanation below

(1) $\frac{1}{5}$ × $\frac{2}{2}$ = $\frac{2}{10}$ = 0.2

(2) $\frac{6}{25}$ × $\frac{4}{4}$ = $\frac{24}{100}$ = 0.24

(3) 2 $\frac{3}{4}$ = 2 + $\frac{75}{100}$ = 2.75

(4) 3 $\frac{9}{10}$ = 3 + 0.9 = 3.9

(5) 1.25 = 1 $\frac{1}{4}$ = $\frac{5}{4}$

(6) 3.29 = 3 $\frac{29}{100}$ = $\frac{329}{100}$

(7) 0.65 = $\frac{65}{100}$ = $\frac{13}{20}$ in simplest form

(8) 5.6 = 5 $\frac{6}{10}$ = 5 $\frac{3}{5}$ = $\frac{28}{5}$

(9) he is incorrect

$\frac{3}{5}$ × $\frac{20}{20}$ = $\frac{60}{100}$ = 0.6 ≠ 3.5

7 0

3 years ago

Since 2003 median home prices in Midvale, UT have been growing exponentially at roughly 4.7 % per year. If you had purchased a h

Kipish [7]

Answer:

The home would be worth $249000 during the year of 2012.

Step-by-step explanation:

The price of the home in t years after 2004 can be modeled by the following equation:

$P(t) = P(0)(1+r)^{t}$

In which P(0) is the price of the house in 2004 and r is the growth rate.

Since 2003 median home prices in Midvale, UT have been growing exponentially at roughly 4.7 % per year.

This means that $r = 0.047$

$172000 in 2004

This means that $P(0) = 172000$

What year would the home be worth $ 249000 ?

t years after 2004.

t is found when P(t) = 249000. So

$P(t) = P(0)(1+r)^{t}$

$249000 = 172000(1.047)^{t}$

$(1.047)^{t} = \frac{249000}{172000}$

$\log{(1.047)^{t}} = \log{\frac{249000}{172000}}$

$t\log(1.047) = \log{\frac{249000}{172000}}$

$t = \frac{\log{\frac{249000}{172000}}}{\log(1.047)}$

$t = 8.05$

2004 + 8.05 = 2012

The home would be worth $249000 during the year of 2012.

8 0

3 years ago