Answer:
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Bank asset is the assets which represent the ownership of the value capable of being converted into cash. So, the reserve which the banks hold or refrain from using will be classified as the asset for the bank. And the deposit made by the customer will be classified as the current liability as the bank allows the customers to use their deposits whenever they want to use.
Therefore, the reserve is a part of bank asset whereas the deposits will not be a part of bank asset.
Answer:
SIMON COMPANY'S YEAR END BALANCE SHEET
AT DECEMBER 31 Current 1 yr ago 2 yrs ago
cash 6.1% 8.1% 9.90%
Accounts receivables 16.6% 14.1% 13.2%
inventory 21.5% 18.9% 14.6%
prepaid expense 1.8% 2.1% 1.1%
plant asset 54.0% 56.8% 61.2%
Total Asset 100.0% 100.0% 100.0%
Liabilities and Equity
Accounts payable 24.4% 17.1% 13.2%
Notes payable 18.6% 23.0% 22.5%
common stock 28.5% 33.1% 40.5%
Retained earnings 28.5% 26.9% 23.8%
total 100.0% 100.0% 100.0%
2) The change in % of accounts receivables is unfavorable because this means that our Debtors are not paying instead are continuing to buy on credit and that our collection methods are weak and ineffective.
3) The % change in inventory is unfavorable because it means we are selling less stock as years goes by and that we are buying more than we are selling.
Explanation:
<span>A. Medicare provides health care for older people, while Medicaid provides health care for people with low incomes.</span>
Answer:
An overdraft is an extension of credit from a lending institution that is granted when an account reaches zero. ... Basically, an overdraft means that the bank allows customers to borrow a set amount of money. There is interest on the loan, and there is typically a fee per overdraft
hope it will help you...
Answer:
The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
The perpetuities can becalculate as follow
C/rate = Perpetuities
the reasoning behind this formula:

If we calculate limit whe ntime is infite,
because at more time 1 + r gets closer and closer to 0
we get on the dividend
1 - 0
So we have C x 1/i = C/i
Next part would be why the first cash flow is more relevant than the subsequent cash flow:

Here if time increases, then the divisor get closer to ∞ so we have
P ( a constant) /∞ = 0
So the first cashflow is more relevant than the more distant cash flow