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stich3 [128]
3 years ago
12

Simplify: 20 - 2 × 8 + 42 A. 20 B. 160 C. 52 D. 26

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gnom [1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 46

Step-by-step explanation:

You can simplify this using PEMDAS:

Parentheses

Exponents

Multiplication/division

Addition/subtraction

Move through the steps in that order.

In this case, the first two steps are absent, so multiply first:

20 - 16 + 42

Then, add and subtract:

46.

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I really need help with this one please help me thank you​
sveta [45]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Dy/dx ln(xy)=e^(x+y)
Westkost [7]
In(xy) = e^(x+y)

(xy)'/xy  = (x+y)' e^(x+y)

(x'y + xy')/xy = (1+y') e^(x+y)

(y + xy')/xy = (1+y')e^(x+y) and simplify

Hope this helps
4 0
3 years ago
You picked two marbles from a bag and record their color. How can you make your selections independent events? Dependent events?
olga55 [171]

Answer:

Let's suppose the next case:

We have a bag, where there are 5 red marbles, and 5 blue marbles.

We have a total of 10 marbles.

Suppose that we pick a marble and we do not replace it, and suppose that the first one is a red marble.

Then now we have in the bag a total of 4 red marbles and 5 blue marbles.

Now let's find the probability of picking a blue marble, this will be equal to the quotient between the number of blue marbles (5) and the total number of marbles (9)

P = 5/9

Now, suppose that instead of a red marble in the first pick, we had a blue marble.

Then now we have 4 blue marbles and 5 red marbles in the bag.

Again, the probability of picking a blue marble will be equal to the quotient between the number of blue marbles (4) and total numbergof marbles (9)

P = 4/9

Then the first pick does affect the probabilities for the second pick, this means that if we do not replace the first marble we pick, then the events will be dependent.

Now, if we replaced the first marble we picked (we put it again in the bag) then the number of blue marbles and red marbles is always the same, then in this case bot events will be independent (the first event will not affect the second event)

4 0
3 years ago
How do you solve this ?
Anton [14]

Answer:

x = 37 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

using the Pythagorean theorem:

m² = 13² - 5² = 169 - 25 = 144

m = √144 = 12 mm

x² = 12² + 35² = 144 + 1225 = 1369

x = √1369 = 37 mm

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 100 minus 6x equals 160 - 10x answer
In-s [12.5K]
10 - 6x = 160 - 10x
     +6x            +6x

-10 + 6 = -4

10 = 160 - 4x
         -160

10 - 160 = -150

-4x = -150

-4x/4 = -150/-4 

x= 37.5
4 0
3 years ago
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