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IgorLugansk [536]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following terms describes the giving up of a person suspected of a crime as part of an agreement between two or mor

e sovereign powers? A. cartel B. extradition C. bicameral D. insurgency
Business
2 answers:
Nostrana [21]3 years ago
7 0

Almost sure the correct option  is (B).

Alinara [238K]3 years ago
4 0
I'd go with B.Extradition.
Hope this helps
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Scott Company sells merchandise with a one-year warranty. Sales consisted of 2,500 units in Year 1 and 2,000 units in Year 2. It
Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

Scott Company must record the warranty expense and liability regarding the products sold during the years that they occur. For example, the following journal entry must be made to record the warranty expense for year 1:

Dr Warranty expense 25,000

    Cr Warranty liability 25,000

During year 2, they will record the warranty expense for that year:

Dr Warranty expense 20,000

    Cr Warranty liability 20,000

That means that during year 3, the only warranty expense recorded will be the one related to the goods sold during that year.

8 0
3 years ago
Bennett Co. has a potential new project that is expected to generate annual revenues of $255,800, with variable costs of $141,20
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

b. $124,120

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Splish Company provides the following information about its defined benefit pension plan for the year 2017. Service cost $110,00
kipiarov [429]

Answer: $155,520

Explanation:

Pension Expense = Service Cost - Expected return on plan assets + Prior service cost amortization + Interest cost

Interest Cost

= Interest rate * Projected benefit obligation

= 0.09 * 728,000

= $65,520

Pension Expense = 110,000 - 30,000 + 10,000 + 65,520

= $155,520

3 0
3 years ago
Targaryen Corporation has a target capital structure of 65 percent common stock, 5 percent preferred stock, and 30 percent debt.
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

  • a. What is the company’s WACC?

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%) * (1-0,25) =  10,05%

  • b. What is the aftertax cost of debt?

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

Explanation:

The WACC it's defined by the formula :

WACC: E/V*Re + D/V*Rd *(1-0,25)

Re:   13,00%  Cost of Common Equity    

Re:   5,00%  Cost of Preferred STOCK  

Re:   6%     Cost of Debt  

E/V:   65%   Percentage of financing that is Common Equity  

PS/V:   5%     Percentage of financing that is Preferred Stock  

DB/V:   30%    Percentage of financing that is Debt  

Tax:  25%    Corporate tax rate  

Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC.

The WACC is:      

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%)*(1-0,25) =  10,05%  

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

5 0
3 years ago
Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t
finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0
2 years ago
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