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lakkis [162]
3 years ago
8

On January 2, 2016, Jennings Company purchases machinery and equipment and borrows $200,000 on a 5-year non-interest-bearing not

e. The principal of $200,000 will be paid at the maturity date of December 31, 2020. To place a fair value on the transaction, the accountant will impute an interest rate and use that rate to compute the present value of the note.Required: Assuming that an 8% interest rate is applicable, record the journal entry for interest expense for the year ended December 31, 2016.
Business
1 answer:
Zanzabum3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

December 21, 2016

DR Interest expense....................................................$10,889.33

CR Discount on notes payable.......................................................$10,889.33

Explanation:

The interest to be paid will be charged on the present value of the note in 2016.

Present value of $200,000 = 200,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^5

= 200,000/1.4693280768‬

= $136,116.64

Interest to be paid;

= 136,116.64 * 8%

= $10,889.33

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Taylor Company has current sales of 1,000 units, which generates sales revenue of $190,000, variable costs of $76,000 and fixed
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

The change in net operating income after the changes by $14,200

Explanation:

For computing the change in net operating income, first, we have to compute the contribution per unit which is shown below:

Contribution per unit = Selling per unit - variable cost per unit

                                   = $190 per unit - $76 per unit

                                   =  $114 per unit

where,

The selling per unit = (Sales revenue ÷ number of units)

                                = ($190,000 ÷ 1,000 units)

                                = $190 per unit

The variable cost per unit = (variable cost ÷ number of units)

                                           = ($76,000 ÷ 1,000 units)

                                           = $76 per unit

Now the change in operating income equals to

= (increased sales units × contribution per unit) - advertising cost

= (300 units × $114 per unit) - $20,000

= $34,200 -$20,000

= $14,200 increase

7 0
3 years ago
Dyckman Dealers has an investment in Thomas Corporation bonds that Dyckman accounts for as a trading security. Thomas Corporatio
faust18 [17]

Answer: $20,000

Explanation:

Bonds are to be carried in the books at their fair value which is their market value. That value is $20,000 in this instance and so Dyckman Dealers will have to record the bonds at that $20,000 value.

Investment analysis are not a basis for recording bond prices. They are simply a basis for making investment decisions. For instance, because they believe that the bond is overvalued, they can benefit from this by short selling the bond and waiting for it to drop in price.

3 0
3 years ago
What is the SWOT(strength,weakness,opportunity, threats) for empty malls in malaysia?​
Levart [38]
......................
6 0
3 years ago
On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible. What entry should be recorded on February
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible.

The entry to be recorded on February 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method is:

Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,700; credit Accounts Receivable $2,700.

Explanation:

Using the allowance method, every bad debt entry is first reflected in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before it is taken to the bad debt expense account.

The entries above reduce the Accounts Receivable account by the amount of the write-off and reduces the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts by the same amount.  Any recovery of written off debt is also treated in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and the Accounts Receivable account in revised order.  This method is unlike the direct write-off method.  With the direct write-off method, the Accounts Receivable is credited with the amount of the write-off and the write-off is expensed in the Bad Debts Expense account directly.

5 0
3 years ago
The bonds issued by United Corp. bear a coupon of 6 percent, payable semiannually. The bond matures in 20 years and has a $1,000
pishuonlain [190]

Answer: 6.40%

Explanation:

Use Excel to calculate this by the formula;

= RATE(Nper,Pmt,-Pv,Fv)

Nper is number of periods = 20 * 2 = 40 semi annual periods

Pmt is the payment = $6%/2 * 1,000 = $30

Pv is the present value = $955

Fv is future value or face value = $1,000

= RATE (40,60,-955,1000)

= 3.20% * 2 (because this is a semi annual rate)

= 6.40%

8 0
3 years ago
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